Surgical Emergencies
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USMLE Step 2 CK › Surgical Emergencies
What is the most appropriate initial management?
Intravenous antibiotics alone
Laparoscopic washout without resection
CT-guided percutaneous drainage and intravenous antibiotics
Emergent sigmoid colectomy
Explanation
This patient has complicated diverticulitis with a well-defined abscess > 4 cm. The standard of care for a stable patient with a contained abscess of this size is CT-guided percutaneous drainage for source control, combined with intravenous antibiotics. This approach often allows the acute inflammation to resolve, avoiding an emergent, high-risk surgery and potentially allowing for an elective, single-stage resection later. Surgery (sigmoidectomy) is reserved for patients with diffuse peritonitis, those who fail non-operative management, or for elective management of recurrent disease. Antibiotics alone are insufficient for an abscess of this size.
What is the most appropriate intraoperative management?
Perform a right hemicolectomy
Drain the abscess only and place a drain
Close the abdomen and treat with intravenous antibiotics
Perform appendectomy and drain the abscess
Explanation
When complicated appendicitis (perforation with abscess) is encountered during surgery, the standard of care is to perform an appendectomy to remove the source of infection and to drain the abscess cavity. Leaving the appendix in situ (draining only) leads to a high rate of recurrence and the need for a second surgery. A right hemicolectomy is reserved for cases where the cecum is necrotic or if there is concern for a cecal malignancy. Closing the abdomen without source control would be inadequate and dangerous.
Which of the following CT findings would be most concerning for transmural bowel necrosis requiring surgical intervention?
Mesenteric fat stranding
Pneumatosis intestinalis
Bowel wall thickening
Ascites
Explanation
This patient has developed non-occlusive mesenteric ischemia (NOMI) due to a low-flow state (sepsis, vasopressor use) in the setting of underlying vascular disease. While bowel wall thickening and fat stranding are signs of inflammation or ischemia, pneumatosis intestinalis (air in the bowel wall) is a highly specific sign of severe ischemia and impending or frank transmural necrosis. The presence of pneumatosis intestinalis, especially with associated portal venous gas, is often an indication for emergent surgical exploration and resection of non-viable bowel.
Which of the following is the most appropriate imaging modality to confirm the diagnosis?
Diagnostic laparoscopy
CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis without contrast
Plain abdominal radiograph series
Graded-compression abdominal ultrasonography
Explanation
In a pregnant patient with suspected appendicitis, imaging is often necessary due to the atypical presentation and physiologic leukocytosis. Graded-compression ultrasonography is the initial imaging modality of choice because it is effective and avoids ionizing radiation to the fetus. If the ultrasound is non-diagnostic, MRI is the preferred next step. CT scan is generally avoided due to radiation exposure unless the diagnosis remains uncertain and the risk of a missed diagnosis is high. Diagnostic laparoscopy is an invasive surgical procedure used for treatment once the diagnosis is strongly suspected or confirmed.
The development of acute abdominal pain in this patient is most likely due to which of the following?
Referred pain from the thorax
Mesenteric ischemia from aortic dissection
Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm
Acute pancreatitis
Explanation
This patient's presentation is classic for an acute aortic dissection. The sudden development of severe abdominal pain suggests that the dissection flap has extended to involve the abdominal aorta and is now compromising blood flow to one of the major visceral arteries, such as the superior mesenteric artery, leading to acute mesenteric ischemia. This is a catastrophic complication of aortic dissection. A ruptured AAA would present with abdominal/back pain and shock, but the preceding tearing chest pain and blood pressure differential point to dissection. Pancreatitis is less likely. Referred pain would not typically be this severe or cause peritoneal signs.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Diverticulitis
Acute mesenteric ischemia
Perforated peptic ulcer
Acute pancreatitis
Explanation
This patient's presentation is classic for acute mesenteric ischemia (AMI), specifically due to an arterial embolism from his untreated atrial fibrillation. The hallmark of AMI is severe abdominal pain that is 'out of proportion' to the physical exam findings. The elevated lactate level is a key finding indicating tissue hypoxia and impending bowel necrosis. Acute pancreatitis typically has epigastric pain radiating to the back and elevated lipase. A perforated ulcer would cause peritonitis with a rigid abdomen. Diverticulitis usually presents with left lower quadrant pain and tenderness.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Right lower quadrant ultrasonography
Abdominal CT scan with contrast
Intravenous antibiotics and observation
Urgent surgical consultation for appendectomy
Explanation
This patient has a classic presentation of acute appendicitis, including migratory pain, fever, leukocytosis, and localized right lower quadrant tenderness. In a young male with a classic presentation and a high Alvarado score (≥7), the diagnosis is considered highly likely, and further imaging is often unnecessary and can delay definitive treatment. The most appropriate next step is an urgent surgical consultation for appendectomy. While imaging (CT or ultrasound) is often used in equivocal cases or in populations where the diagnosis is less certain (e.g., women of childbearing age, the elderly), it is not required here. Antibiotics and observation would be inappropriate as this is a surgical disease requiring definitive source control.
What is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
Incarcerated inguinal hernia
Colon cancer
Sigmoid volvulus
Adhesions from prior surgery
Explanation
The clinical presentation and radiographic findings are classic for a small bowel obstruction (SBO). In a patient with a history of prior abdominal surgery, intra-abdominal adhesions are the most common cause of SBO. An incarcerated hernia is a possible cause, but it would typically be evident on physical exam. Colon cancer and sigmoid volvulus are causes of large bowel obstruction, which would present with a dilated colon on imaging, not primarily dilated small bowel loops.
In addition to intravenous fluids and antibiotics, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Urgent ERCP with sphincterotomy
Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography
Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP)
Laparoscopic cholecystectomy within 24 hours
Explanation
This patient presents with Charcot's triad (fever, RUQ pain, jaundice) and hypotension, which constitutes Reynolds' pentad, indicating severe acute cholangitis. This is a surgical emergency caused by biliary obstruction and subsequent infection. The most critical intervention is to decompress the biliary tree. Urgent Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) with sphincterotomy and stone extraction is the procedure of choice to relieve the obstruction. While cholecystectomy will be needed later, biliary drainage is the immediate priority. Percutaneous drainage is a second-line option if ERCP is not available or fails. MRCP is a diagnostic, not therapeutic, tool.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Acute mesenteric ischemia
Diverticulitis
Ischemic colitis
Infectious colitis
Explanation
This patient's presentation is classic for ischemic colitis. It typically occurs in the setting of a low-flow state (hypotension) in patients with underlying atherosclerosis. The pain is usually less severe than in acute mesenteric ischemia, and it is often accompanied by bloody diarrhea. The splenic flexure is a common location as it is a 'watershed' area between the superior and inferior mesenteric artery circulations. Diverticulitis typically does not cause significant bleeding. Acute mesenteric ischemia causes much more severe pain. Infectious colitis is possible but less likely given the clear precipitating event of hypotension.