Substance Use And Addiction
Help Questions
USMLE Step 2 CK › Substance Use And Addiction
A 44-year-old woman takes high-dose alprazolam daily and stops abruptly 3 days ago. She has tremor, insomnia, and a seizure. Which medication is best?
Start a long-acting benzodiazepine and taper gradually
Prescribe bupropion to treat withdrawal symptoms
Begin naltrexone to reduce cravings
Give flumazenil to prevent further seizures
Administer naloxone and observe
Explanation
This question tests medical students' understanding of substance use and addiction management in a clinical context, focusing on psychiatric principles. Substance use disorders require a nuanced understanding of withdrawal symptoms, intoxication effects, and management strategies, emphasizing evidence-based practice. In this vignette, the patient's presentation and history provide critical clues for diagnosis and management, such as tremor, insomnia, and seizure after abrupt alprazolam cessation. The correct answer, choice A, is the best clinical decision because starting a long-acting benzodiazepine with gradual taper prevents severe withdrawal per psychiatric guidelines. A common distractor, choice D, is incorrect because flumazenil can precipitate seizures in benzodiazepine-dependent patients. Effective strategies include familiarizing oneself with withdrawal protocols and staying updated on guidelines. Practicing case scenarios and understanding the nuances of dual diagnosis can improve decision-making skills.
A 52-year-old man with alcohol use disorder has confusion, ataxia, and nystagmus in the ED. Glucose is 52 mg/dL. Which next step is best?
Administer IV thiamine before giving IV dextrose
Start IV naloxone due to altered mental status
Order MRI brain prior to any treatment
Provide oral folate and discharge with counseling
Give IV dextrose first, then thiamine if symptoms persist
Explanation
This question tests medical students' understanding of substance use and addiction management in a clinical context, focusing on psychiatric principles. Substance use disorders require a nuanced understanding of withdrawal symptoms, intoxication effects, and management strategies, emphasizing evidence-based practice. In this vignette, the patient's presentation and history provide critical clues for diagnosis and management, such as confusion, ataxia, nystagmus, and hypoglycemia in alcohol use disorder. The correct answer, choice A, is the best clinical decision because IV thiamine before dextrose prevents Wernicke encephalopathy exacerbation per neurology guidelines. A common distractor, choice B, is incorrect because giving dextrose first without thiamine can precipitate acute Wernicke syndrome in thiamine-deficient patients. Effective strategies include familiarizing oneself with withdrawal protocols and staying updated on guidelines. Practicing case scenarios and understanding the nuances of dual diagnosis can improve decision-making skills.
A 31-year-old man has fever, diaphoresis, tremor, hyperreflexia, and clonus after taking linezolid with sertraline. Which diagnosis is most likely?
Opioid withdrawal
Alcohol withdrawal delirium
Anticholinergic toxicity
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Serotonin syndrome
Explanation
This question tests medical students' understanding of substance use and addiction management in a clinical context, focusing on psychiatric principles. Substance use disorders require a nuanced understanding of withdrawal symptoms, intoxication effects, and management strategies, emphasizing evidence-based practice. In this vignette, the patient's presentation and history provide critical clues for diagnosis and management, such as fever, diaphoresis, tremor, hyperreflexia, and clonus after linezolid with sertraline. The correct answer, choice A, is the best clinical decision because serotonin syndrome arises from MAOI-SSRI interaction per pharmacology guidelines. A common distractor, choice B, is incorrect because neuroleptic malignant syndrome involves rigidity and antipsychotic use, not this combination. Effective strategies include familiarizing oneself with withdrawal protocols and staying updated on guidelines. Practicing case scenarios and understanding the nuances of dual diagnosis can improve decision-making skills.
A 35-year-old man with severe alcohol withdrawal has seizures in the ED. He is afebrile; CT head is normal. Which next step is most appropriate?
Start disulfiram immediately to enforce abstinence
Give IV phenytoin as first-line seizure prevention
Discharge after 2 hours seizure-free with counseling
Administer IV benzodiazepines and monitor closely
Provide flumazenil to reverse sedative effects
Explanation
This question tests medical students' understanding of substance use and addiction management in a clinical context, focusing on psychiatric principles. Substance use disorders require a nuanced understanding of withdrawal symptoms, intoxication effects, and management strategies, emphasizing evidence-based practice. In this vignette, the patient's presentation and history provide critical clues for diagnosis and management, such as seizures in severe alcohol withdrawal with normal CT head. The correct answer, choice A, is the best clinical decision because IV benzodiazepines are first-line to control seizures and prevent recurrence per withdrawal protocols. A common distractor, choice B, is incorrect because phenytoin is not first-line for alcohol withdrawal seizures and benzodiazepines are preferred. Effective strategies include familiarizing oneself with withdrawal protocols and staying updated on guidelines. Practicing case scenarios and understanding the nuances of dual diagnosis can improve decision-making skills.