Pulmonary Infections
Help Questions
USMLE Step 2 CK › Pulmonary Infections
Which of the following is the most appropriate empiric antibiotic regimen for this patient?
Ceftriaxone and azithromycin
Piperacillin-tazobactam and vancomycin
Amoxicillin-clavulanate
Doxycycline
Explanation
This patient has community-acquired pneumonia requiring inpatient admission. He has multiple comorbidities (COPD, diabetes). The standard of care for non-severe inpatient CAP is a combination of a beta-lactam (e.g., ceftriaxone) plus a macrolide (e.g., azithromycin), or monotherapy with a respiratory fluoroquinolone (e.g., levofloxacin). This regimen provides coverage for typical pathogens like Streptococcus pneumoniae as well as atypical pathogens.
Which of the following diagnostic tests is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
Serum cold agglutinin test
Blood cultures
Urine antigen test
Sputum Gram stain and culture
Explanation
This patient's presentation with pneumonia accompanied by gastrointestinal symptoms (diarrhea), neurologic symptoms (headache), and hyponatremia, in the context of a recent hotel stay, is classic for Legionnaires' disease, caused by Legionella pneumophila. The most rapid and specific diagnostic test is the urine antigen test for L. pneumophila serogroup 1.
In addition to continuing appropriate antibiotic therapy, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Surgical decortication
Chest tube placement
Observation with current antibiotics
Repeat thoracentesis in 48 hours
Explanation
This patient has an empyema, which is a complicated parapneumonic effusion characterized by the presence of pus or bacteria in the pleural space. The pleural fluid analysis (pH < 7.2, glucose < 60 mg/dL, positive Gram stain) confirms this. The definitive management for an empyema requires drainage of the infected fluid in addition to antibiotics. The first-line intervention for drainage is the placement of a chest tube (tube thoracostomy).
Which of the following medications is most likely responsible for his symptoms?
Pyrazinamide
Rifampin
Isoniazid
Ethambutol
Explanation
Optic neuritis, characterized by decreased visual acuity, central scotoma, and color blindness (especially red-green), is a well-known, dose-dependent adverse effect of ethambutol. This is a reversible condition if the drug is discontinued promptly. Patients starting ethambutol should have a baseline vision screen and be counseled to report any visual changes immediately.
Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?
Staphylococcus aureus
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation
This patient's subacute presentation, age, and setting (college dormitory) are classic for an atypical pneumonia, often referred to as 'walking pneumonia.' Mycoplasma pneumoniae is the most common cause of atypical pneumonia in young, healthy adults. The indolent course, non-productive cough, and interstitial pattern on chest x-ray are characteristic features.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial intravenous antibiotic regimen?
Levofloxacin
Ampicillin-sulbactam
Doxycycline
Ceftriaxone and azithromycin
Explanation
This patient has severe community-acquired pneumonia, as evidenced by his need for ICU admission and vasopressor support for septic shock. Guidelines for severe CAP recommend a combination of a beta-lactam (e.g., ceftriaxone) plus a macrolide (e.g., azithromycin) or a beta-lactam plus a respiratory fluoroquinolone. This combination provides broad coverage against the most likely pathogen, Streptococcus pneumoniae (suggested by the Gram stain), as well as atypical pathogens.
Which of the following antibiotic regimens is the most appropriate initial therapy?
Ceftriaxone and azithromycin
Clindamycin
Vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam
Ampicillin and gentamicin
Explanation
This patient meets the criteria for ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP), which develops >48 hours after endotracheal intubation. Empiric therapy for VAP must cover multidrug-resistant organisms, including MRSA and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. The combination of vancomycin (for MRSA) and an anti-pseudomonal beta-lactam such as piperacillin-tazobactam provides appropriate broad-spectrum coverage pending culture results.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to establish a definitive diagnosis?
Bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage
Tuberculin skin test
Empiric treatment with ceftriaxone
Sputum Gram stain and culture
Explanation
The clinical presentation of subacute dyspnea, hypoxia, and diffuse interstitial infiltrates in a severely immunocompromised patient (CD4 < 200) is highly suggestive of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP). Because P. jirovecii cannot be cultured, a definitive diagnosis requires visualization of the cysts or trophozoites in a respiratory sample. Sputum induction can be attempted, but bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) has a much higher diagnostic yield and is the most appropriate next step.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Pulmonary embolism with infarction
Lung abscess
Tuberculosis
Cavitating squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation
This patient's presentation is classic for a lung abscess. Key features include the subacute onset of symptoms, risk factors for aspiration (alcoholism, poor dentition), production of purulent, foul-smelling (putrid) sputum indicative of anaerobic infection, and the characteristic chest x-ray finding of a cavitary lesion with an air-fluid level. The location in a gravity-dependent segment of the lung is also typical.
What is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient?
Continue current antibiotic for another 48 hours
Go to the emergency department for immediate evaluation
Add a course of oral prednisone
Switch antibiotic to oral levofloxacin
Explanation
This patient is demonstrating clinical failure of outpatient pneumonia treatment. His worsening respiratory symptoms, persistent high fever, and new-onset confusion are signs of severe pneumonia that require hospitalization. He needs urgent evaluation in an emergency department for potential sepsis, respiratory failure, and the need for intravenous antibiotics and supportive care. Changing oral antibiotics would be inappropriate and unsafe.