Psychiatric Emergencies And Safety
Help Questions
USMLE Step 2 CK › Psychiatric Emergencies And Safety
What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Develop a verbal safety plan with the patient and schedule a follow-up call for tomorrow.
Start a new antidepressant and schedule a follow-up appointment in one week.
Initiate emergency procedures for involuntary psychiatric hospitalization.
Contact the patient's wife and ask her to remove the firearm from the home.
Explanation
This patient is expressing active suicidal ideation with a specific, lethal plan and intent, constituting a psychiatric emergency. The provider's primary responsibility is to ensure the patient's safety, which requires immediate hospitalization. Because the risk is imminent, an involuntary hold is necessary if the patient is unwilling to be admitted voluntarily. A verbal safety plan is insufficient for this level of acute risk. Starting a new medication is not an immediate intervention and will take weeks to become effective. While removing the firearm is important, it does not address the underlying acute suicidality, and the patient could find other means; hospitalization is the definitive safety measure.
What is the most appropriate next step?
Discharge the patient with a referral to an intensive outpatient program.
Respect the patient's autonomy and discharge her against medical advice.
Prescribe a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor and arrange for a family member to stay with her.
Initiate proceedings for an emergency involuntary psychiatric hold.
Explanation
The patient poses an imminent danger to herself, as evidenced by her recent serious attempt and her stated intent to try again upon release. When a patient with a mental illness is a danger to themselves or others and refuses voluntary treatment, an involuntary psychiatric hold (commitment) is necessary to ensure their safety. Discharging her, even with resources, would be unsafe. Her decision-making is impaired by her severe depression, so her refusal of treatment cannot be considered an autonomous choice. Outpatient management is insufficient for this level of acute risk.
Which of the following factors is the strongest predictor of imminent violence in this patient?
Active homicidal ideation with a specific target and plan.
A history of medication non-adherence.
The presence of persecutory delusions.
A past history of violence.
Explanation
While a past history of violence is the single best long-term predictor of future violence, the strongest predictor of imminent violence is active homicidal ideation with a specific plan and an identified victim. This patient's direct threat against his neighbor represents an immediate and serious risk. Medication non-adherence and persecutory delusions are risk factors that increase the overall likelihood of violence, but the specific, articulated threat is the most urgent concern.
Which of the following is the most appropriate medication for this patient's agitation?
Propranolol.
Lorazepam.
Haloperidol.
Olanzapine.
Explanation
This patient's presentation (agitation, sympathomimetic signs including tachycardia, hypertension, mydriasis, and diaphoresis) is highly suggestive of stimulant intoxication (e.g., cocaine, amphetamines). Benzodiazepines, such as lorazepam, are the first-line treatment for agitation and sympathomimetic toxicity. They reduce agitation, treat hypertension and tachycardia, and prevent seizures. Antipsychotics like haloperidol or olanzapine are second-line and should be used with caution as they can lower the seizure threshold and cause QTc prolongation. Propranolol is contraindicated in cocaine toxicity due to the risk of unopposed alpha-adrenergic stimulation, which can worsen hypertension.
This patient meets criteria for an involuntary psychiatric hold primarily based on which of the following?
Imminent danger to others.
Grave disability.
Refusal of medical treatment.
Imminent danger to self.
Explanation
The criteria for involuntary commitment are typically danger to self, danger to others, or grave disability. This patient, due to her manic episode, is unable to provide for her basic needs (food, shelter, safety), which is the definition of grave disability. While wandering in traffic is dangerous, the core issue is her inability to care for herself due to mental illness, not a specific intent to self-harm. She is not expressing threats towards others. Refusal of treatment is not a criterion in itself for commitment, but rather a consequence of the underlying condition that meets one of the three main criteria.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
Anticholinergic toxicity.
Malignant hyperthermia.
Serotonin syndrome.
Explanation
This patient presents with the classic triad of serotonin syndrome: autonomic dysfunction (hyperthermia, diaphoresis), altered mental status (confusion, agitation), and neuromuscular hyperactivity (clonus, hyperreflexia). This was likely precipitated by the combination of an SSRI (sertraline) and linezolid, which has MAOI properties. NMS is caused by dopamine antagonists and features lead-pipe rigidity. Malignant hyperthermia is related to anesthetics. Anticholinergic toxicity presents with dry skin and mucous membranes, not diaphoresis.
What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic and therapeutic intervention?
Administer an intravenous lorazepam challenge.
Initiate a high-potency antipsychotic such as haloperidol.
Proceed directly to electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
Obtain an urgent electroencephalogram (EEG).
Explanation
This patient's presentation with mutism, immobility, posturing, and waxy flexibility is classic for catatonia. The lorazepam challenge is a key step in management; a rapid (within 5-10 minutes) and significant improvement in catatonic symptoms after an IV dose of lorazepam (1-2 mg) confirms the diagnosis and is also therapeutic. High-potency antipsychotics can worsen catatonia and may precipitate NMS. An EEG is useful to rule out nonconvulsive status epilepticus, but the lorazepam challenge is the more specific first step. ECT is a highly effective treatment for catatonia, especially malignant catatonia or cases refractory to benzodiazepines, but it is not the initial intervention.
Which of the following clinical features most strongly suggests delirium over a primary psychotic disorder?
The acute onset of the symptoms.
The absence of a prior psychiatric history.
A fluctuating course of symptoms.
The presence of visual hallucinations.
Explanation
The hallmark of delirium is a disturbance in attention and awareness that develops over a short period and tends to fluctuate in severity during the course of the day. While acute onset, visual hallucinations, and lack of prior psychiatric history are all suggestive of delirium, the fluctuating course is the most specific and classic feature that distinguishes it from most primary psychotic disorders, which tend to have a more consistent presentation throughout the day.
What is the most appropriate disposition for this patient?
Voluntary admission to an inpatient psychiatric unit.
A 23-hour observation stay in the emergency department with crisis intervention.
Involuntary commitment for being a danger to self.
Discharge with a family member and an urgent outpatient psychiatry referral.
Explanation
This patient has active suicidal ideation with a method, and he explicitly states that he feels unsafe. This meets the criteria for inpatient hospitalization to ensure his safety and initiate treatment. Since he is willing to accept help, voluntary admission is the appropriate and least restrictive option. Discharging him would be unsafe, given his stated fear of acting on his thoughts. Observation in the ED is not a substitute for specialized inpatient psychiatric care. Involuntary commitment is not necessary as he is willing to be admitted voluntarily.
Which of the following is the strongest protective factor against imminent suicide in this patient?
The presence of a strong family support system.
The fact that the previous attempt was unsuccessful.
Willingness to engage in treatment and a future orientation.
Being in a supervised hospital environment.
Explanation
Protective factors can buffer individuals from suicidal behavior. While family support and a safe environment are important, the strongest protective factors are internal to the patient. His expression of remorse, future orientation ("never get to that place again"), and willingness to engage in treatment indicate a shift in his mental state and a capacity to form a therapeutic alliance, which significantly lowers his imminent risk. A previous attempt, even if unsuccessful, is a strong risk factor for future suicide, not a protective one.