Polypharmacy & medication safety
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USMLE Step 2 CK › Polypharmacy & medication safety
Which of the following is the most significant contributing factor to this patient's QTc prolongation?
The patient's underlying depression
A direct proarrhythmic effect of hydrochlorothiazide
The synergistic effect of citalopram and hydrochlorothiazide-induced hypokalemia
An adverse effect of cyclobenzaprine
Explanation
Citalopram causes dose-dependent QTc prolongation, particularly at doses ≥20 mg daily in elderly patients. This risk is significantly exacerbated by electrolyte abnormalities, especially hypokalemia. Hydrochlorothiazide commonly causes hypokalemia through renal potassium wasting. The combination of a QT-prolonging medication (citalopram) with drug-induced hypokalemia creates a synergistic effect that significantly increases the risk of dangerous arrhythmias like Torsades de Pointes, which likely caused her syncope. While cyclobenzaprine has mild anticholinergic effects, it is not a significant cause of QT prolongation.
The severe hypotension is due to a synergistic interaction between sildenafil and which of the following medications?
Metoprolol
Isosorbide mononitrate
Amlodipine
Ranolazine
Explanation
The concurrent use of nitrates (e.g., isosorbide mononitrate, nitroglycerin) and phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE-5) inhibitors (e.g., sildenafil) is an absolute contraindication. Both drug classes cause vasodilation through the nitric oxide-cGMP pathway. Their combined use leads to a synergistic and profound drop in blood pressure, which can be life-threatening. Beta-blockers (metoprolol) and calcium channel blockers (amlodipine) can lower blood pressure but do not have this dramatic synergistic effect with sildenafil. Ranolazine does not have a significant hemodynamic effect.
The paradoxical worsening of her delirium was most likely caused by the administration of which of the following medications?
Haloperidol
Lorazepam
Acetaminophen
Risperidone
Explanation
Benzodiazepines, such as lorazepam, are known to cause or worsen delirium in older adults, particularly those with underlying dementia. This is a paradoxical reaction where a medication intended to sedate instead causes increased confusion and agitation. While antipsychotics like haloperidol and risperidone are often used cautiously for severe agitation in delirium, benzodiazepines are generally contraindicated unless the delirium is due to alcohol or benzodiazepine withdrawal. Acetaminophen would treat her fever but not worsen her delirium.
Which of the following is the most significant potential drug-drug interaction in this patient's regimen?
Omeprazole may decrease the efficacy of clopidogrel.
Metoprolol may mask the symptoms of atorvastatin-induced myopathy.
Aspirin may reduce the antihypertensive effect of metoprolol.
Atorvastatin may increase the serum level of metoprolol.
Explanation
Omeprazole is a potent inhibitor of the enzyme CYP2C19. Clopidogrel is a prodrug that requires activation by CYP2C19 to exert its antiplatelet effect. By inhibiting this enzyme, omeprazole can reduce the activation of clopidogrel, potentially leading to decreased antiplatelet activity and an increased risk of in-stent thrombosis. While the clinical significance is debated, guidelines often recommend using a PPI with less CYP2C19 inhibition, such as pantoprazole, or separating the administration times. The other potential interactions listed are of less clinical significance.
The new medication was most likely prescribed for which of the following conditions?
Neuropathic pain
Seasonal allergies
Erectile dysfunction
Insomnia
Explanation
The patient developed acute urinary retention, which is a classic anticholinergic adverse effect, particularly problematic in men with underlying benign prostatic hyperplasia. Medications commonly used for neuropathic pain include tricyclic antidepressants (such as amitriptyline or nortriptyline), which have potent anticholinergic properties that can cause urinary retention, dry mouth, constipation, and confusion. Modern antihistamines for allergies have minimal anticholinergic effects, and PDE-5 inhibitors for erectile dysfunction do not cause anticholinergic side effects.
The patient's worsening somnolence is most likely due to an interaction between which two medications?
Morphine and lisinopril
Duloxetine and gabapentin
Morphine and gabapentin
Lisinopril and duloxetine
Explanation
Both opioids (morphine) and gabapentinoids (gabapentin) are central nervous system depressants. When used concurrently, they have a synergistic effect that can lead to profound sedation, somnolence, and respiratory depression. This combination is particularly high-risk in older adults. While duloxetine can also cause drowsiness, the combination of an opioid and gabapentin is a well-known and dangerous interaction that is the most likely cause of her significant decline.
The use of which of the following supplements is the most likely cause for her subtherapeutic INR?
Saw palmetto
Ginkgo biloba
Glucosamine
St. John's wort
Explanation
St. John's wort is a potent inducer of the cytochrome P450 system, particularly CYP3A4 and CYP2C9. Warfarin is metabolized by these enzymes. By inducing the enzymes, St. John's wort accelerates the metabolism of warfarin, leading to lower drug levels and a subtherapeutic INR, which increases the risk of thromboembolic events. Ginkgo biloba can increase bleeding risk but does not typically lower the INR. Saw palmetto and glucosamine do not have a well-established, clinically significant interaction with warfarin.
Which of the following interventions exemplifies the avoidance of a 'prescribing cascade'?
Discontinuing lisinopril due to the cough.
Ordering a chest x-ray to evaluate the cough.
Adding dextromethorphan to treat the cough.
Adding fludrocortisone to treat the lightheadedness.
Explanation
A prescribing cascade occurs when a new medication is added to treat the side effect of another medication, rather than addressing the root cause. The patient's cough is a classic side effect of lisinopril (an ACE inhibitor). Adding a cough suppressant like dextromethorphan would be a prescribing cascade. The most appropriate action to avoid this is to identify the offending agent and stop it. Discontinuing lisinopril and likely substituting it with an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) directly addresses the cause of the side effect.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing his diabetes?
Advise him to eat a mid-morning snack.
Decrease the glyburide dose to 5 mg daily.
Discontinue glyburide.
Discontinue metformin.
Explanation
Glyburide is a long-acting sulfonylurea that is on the Beers Criteria list of medications to be avoided in older adults. It carries a high risk of severe and prolonged hypoglycemia due to its long duration of action and active metabolites that are cleared by the kidneys. Given the patient's symptomatic hypoglycemia, the safest and most appropriate action is to discontinue this high-risk medication entirely and consider a safer alternative (e.g., a DPP-4 inhibitor, GLP-1 agonist, or even a shorter-acting sulfonylurea like glipizide if necessary). Simply reducing the dose or adding a snack does not adequately address the inherent risk of the drug.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for his acute gout flare?
Indomethacin
Oral prednisone
High-dose colchicine
Intravenous allopurinol
Explanation
In a patient with significant chronic kidney disease, NSAIDs like indomethacin are contraindicated as they can cause acute kidney injury. Colchicine is cleared by the kidneys, and its use in severe CKD carries a high risk of toxicity (e.g., myelosuppression, neuropathy); if used, it requires significant dose reduction. Allopurinol is a urate-lowering therapy used for long-term prevention and is not indicated for treating an acute flare. Therefore, corticosteroids (oral prednisone or an intra-articular injection) are the safest and most effective first-line treatment for an acute gout flare in this patient.