Orthopedic And Soft Tissue Injuries

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USMLE Step 2 CK › Orthopedic And Soft Tissue Injuries

Questions 1 - 10
1

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Consult physical therapy for gait training.

Administer high-dose intravenous corticosteroids.

Perform an emergent MRI of the lumbosacral spine.

Obtain plain radiographs of the lumbar spine.

Explanation

This patient's presentation of saddle anesthesia, bilateral lower extremity weakness, and bowel/bladder dysfunction is classic for cauda equina syndrome, a neurosurgical emergency. The most critical next step is to obtain an emergent MRI of the lumbosacral spine to confirm the diagnosis and identify the level of compression, which will guide immediate surgical decompression. Delay in diagnosis and treatment can lead to permanent neurologic deficits.

2

Which of the following is the most important initial intervention to prevent acute kidney injury in this patient?

Administration of N-acetylcysteine

Emergent hemodialysis

Administration of sodium bicarbonate

Aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation with normal saline

Explanation

This patient has rhabdomyolysis secondary to a crush injury. The breakdown of skeletal muscle releases myoglobin, which is nephrotoxic and can cause acute tubular necrosis, leading to acute kidney injury. The cornerstone of management is early and aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation to maintain renal perfusion and flush out the myoglobin casts from the renal tubules. While therapies like sodium bicarbonate are sometimes used, fluid resuscitation is the most critical first step.

3

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Spinal stenosis

Vertebral compression fracture

Metastatic carcinoma to the spine

Herniated nucleus pulposus

Explanation

The acute onset of severe, localized back pain after a minimal trauma event (like sneezing or coughing) in an elderly patient with osteoporosis is the classic presentation of a vertebral compression fracture. The localized point tenderness over the affected vertebra is a key physical finding. The absence of neurologic deficits makes other causes like a large disc herniation or severe stenosis less likely.

4

Which of the following is the most important next step in management?

Perform emergent surgical exploration and debridement.

Obtain wound cultures and wait for sensitivity results.

Obtain a CT scan with contrast to delineate the extent of infection.

Administer broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics.

Explanation

This patient's presentation, with pain out of proportion, rapidly progressing cellulitis, bullae, systemic signs of toxicity (sepsis), and crepitus (suggesting gas-producing organisms), is highly suggestive of necrotizing fasciitis. This is a life-threatening surgical emergency. While broad-spectrum antibiotics are crucial and should be started immediately, the definitive and most critical step is emergent surgical debridement of all necrotic tissue. Delaying surgery for imaging or culture results significantly increases mortality.

5

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Bivalve the cast and measure intracompartmental pressures.

Elevate the leg above the heart and administer additional analgesics.

Obtain an urgent MRI of the lower leg to assess for muscle necrosis.

Administer a bolus of intravenous mannitol.

Explanation

This patient has classic signs and symptoms of acute compartment syndrome: pain out of proportion to the injury, pain with passive stretch, paresthesias, and a tense compartment. The presence of a pulse does not rule out this diagnosis. The immediate first step is to relieve all external pressure, which includes bivalving (cutting) the cast and any underlying padding down to the skin. The definitive diagnosis is then confirmed by measuring intracompartmental pressures. If pressures are elevated (typically >30 mmHg or a delta pressure <30 mmHg), an emergent fasciotomy is required.

6

While awaiting the MRI results, which of the following interventions should be administered immediately?

A dose of zoledronic acid

High-dose intravenous corticosteroids

An empiric dose of broad-spectrum antibiotics

Urgent consultation for palliative chemotherapy

Explanation

This patient's presentation is highly concerning for metastatic spinal cord compression, a neurologic emergency. The combination of cancer history, worsening back pain (especially at night), and new neurologic deficits (weakness, incontinence) warrants immediate action. High-dose intravenous corticosteroids (e.g., dexamethasone) should be administered immediately, even before definitive imaging is completed, to reduce vasogenic edema around the spinal cord and potentially alleviate cord compression, preserving neurologic function.

7

Based on this presentation, which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

Order an MRI of the ankle to assess for ligamentous injury.

Provide conservative management with rest, ice, compression, and elevation (RICE).

Obtain anteroposterior, lateral, and mortise view radiographs of the ankle.

Immobilize the ankle in a short leg cast for 4-6 weeks.

Explanation

This patient's presentation meets the criteria for low risk according to the Ottawa ankle rules, which are used to determine the need for radiography in acute ankle injuries. The rules state that imaging is not required if there is no bony tenderness in the specified malleolar or midfoot zones AND the patient is able to bear weight (take 4 steps) both immediately after the injury and in the emergency department/clinic. Since she meets these criteria, radiographs are unnecessary, and conservative management for a likely ankle sprain is appropriate.

8

Given the 'red flag' symptoms in this patient, which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in her evaluation?

Referral for a 6-week course of physical therapy.

Ordering an emergent MRI of the lumbar spine.

Reassurance and prescription of a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug.

Plain radiographs of the lumbar spine and measurement of ESR/CRP.

Explanation

This patient presents with multiple 'red flags' for a serious underlying cause of back pain, such as malignancy or infection. These flags include age >50, significant smoking history (risk factor for lung cancer with potential spinal metastases), unintentional weight loss, and night pain not relieved by rest. In a patient with red flags but no neurologic deficits, the appropriate initial workup includes plain radiographs to look for obvious bony lesions and inflammatory markers (ESR, CRP) to screen for an inflammatory or infectious process. While plain films may be normal early in metastatic disease, they are the appropriate initial imaging. An emergent MRI is reserved for patients with suspected cauda equina syndrome, spinal cord compression, or when initial workup suggests malignancy.

9

Despite the benign initial appearance, which of the following is the most appropriate management for this injury?

Admit for observation, elevation, and intravenous antibiotics.

Provide tetanus prophylaxis and arrange for follow-up in 24 hours.

Arrange for urgent surgical exploration and debridement.

Irrigate the wound, apply a dressing, and prescribe oral antibiotics.

Explanation

High-pressure injection injuries are surgical emergencies. The injected material can travel far along fascial planes and tendon sheaths, causing extensive tissue damage, ischemia, and inflammation, which may not be apparent on initial examination. The seemingly benign entry wound belies the severe internal injury. Urgent surgical exploration, debridement of foreign material and necrotic tissue, and broad-spectrum antibiotics are required to prevent devastating complications such as compartment syndrome, infection, and amputation.

10

Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?

Intravenous antibiotics and emergent surgical consultation for drainage

Aspiration of the joint and corticosteroid injection

Oral antibiotics and splinting

Warm soaks and close outpatient follow-up

Explanation

This patient's presentation demonstrates Kanavel's cardinal signs of infectious flexor tenosynovitis: 1) fusiform swelling, 2) finger held in slight flexion, 3) tenderness along the flexor tendon sheath, and 4) pain with passive extension. This condition is an orthopedic emergency because the infection is in a closed space and can rapidly lead to tendon necrosis and loss of function. Management requires emergent surgical incision and drainage along with broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics.

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