Labor And Delivery
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USMLE Step 2 CK › Labor And Delivery
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Perform the McRoberts maneuver
Apply firm fundal pressure
Attempt delivery of the posterior arm
Proceed with an immediate episiotomy
Explanation
The clinical scenario describes shoulder dystocia, an obstetric emergency where the anterior shoulder is impacted behind the pubic symphysis. The first-line intervention is the McRoberts maneuver, which involves hyperflexion of the mother's hips onto her abdomen. This maneuver flattens the sacral promontory and rotates the pubic symphysis superiorly, often freeing the impacted shoulder. Fundal pressure should be avoided as it can worsen the impaction. Other maneuvers, like delivery of the posterior arm, are considered if initial steps fail.
Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?
Prolonged latent phase
Arrest of active phase
Second-stage arrest
Protracted active phase
Explanation
Arrest of the active phase of labor is diagnosed in a patient with a cervical dilation of 6 cm or more who has had ruptured membranes and no cervical change for 4 hours or more despite adequate contractions (≥200 MVUs), or no cervical change for 6 hours or more with inadequate contractions. This patient has had no cervical change for 4 hours with adequate contractions, meeting the criteria for active phase arrest, which is an indication for cesarean delivery.
Which of the following interventions is most effective in reducing the risk of primary postpartum hemorrhage?
Vigorous fundal massage prior to placental delivery
Immediate manual extraction of the placenta
Encouraging the mother to push forcefully
Prophylactic administration of oxytocin
Explanation
Active management of the third stage of labor significantly reduces the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. This strategy consists of three components: 1) prophylactic administration of a uterotonic agent (most commonly oxytocin) shortly after the delivery of the infant, 2) controlled cord traction to facilitate placental delivery, and 3) uterine massage after the placenta has been delivered. Prophylactic oxytocin is the most critical component for preventing uterine atony, the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage.
These fetal heart rate findings are most likely caused by which of the following?
Maternal hypotension
Umbilical cord compression
Uteroplacental insufficiency
Fetal head compression
Explanation
The fetal heart rate pattern described is characteristic of variable decelerations. These are defined as an abrupt decrease in the FHR (onset to nadir <30 seconds) of at least 15 bpm, lasting at least 15 seconds but less than 2 minutes. They are variable in their timing relative to contractions and are caused by transient compression of the umbilical cord, which obstructs the umbilical vein and arteries. They are common after rupture of membranes.
Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate action?
Attempt to manually replace the cord into the uterus
Manually elevate the presenting fetal part and place patient in knee-chest position
Administer terbutaline subcutaneously
Proceed directly to the operating room for cesarean delivery
Explanation
This patient has an umbilical cord prolapse, an obstetric emergency. The immediate goals are to relieve pressure on the cord to prevent fetal hypoxia by manually elevating the presenting fetal part with a gloved hand in the vagina and placing the mother in a position that uses gravity to move the fetus away from the pelvis, such as the knee-chest or deep Trendelenburg position. These maneuvers must be performed immediately while preparations for emergency cesarean delivery are made. Attempting to replace the cord is not recommended and may worsen compression.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Active phase labor
False labor
Latent phase labor
Cervical insufficiency
Explanation
True labor is defined by the presence of regular uterine contractions that result in progressive cervical change (dilation and effacement). This patient's contractions are irregular and not increasing in intensity, and critically, there has been no cervical change over a 2-hour observation period. This clinical picture is characteristic of false labor, also known as Braxton Hicks contractions. Patients in false labor can be discharged home with instructions to return if contractions become regular, stronger, and closer together.
This fetal heart rate pattern is most strongly associated with which of the following conditions?
Normal fetal sleep state
Cephalopelvic disproportion
Severe fetal anemia
Maternal fever
Explanation
The described tracing is a sinusoidal pattern, which is an ominous Category III finding. It is characterized by a smooth, undulating wave form and is associated with a high risk of fetal morbidity and mortality. The most common underlying cause is severe fetal anemia, which may result from conditions such as Rh isoimmunization, vasa previa with bleeding, or fetomaternal hemorrhage. Its presence warrants immediate evaluation and likely emergent delivery.
In addition to initiating broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Administration of tocolytics to stop contractions
Augmentation of labor with oxytocin
Immediate cesarean delivery regardless of labor progress
Administration of intravenous corticosteroids
Explanation
The management of chorioamnionitis includes broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics (typically ampicillin and gentamicin) and prompt delivery to remove the source of infection. Since there are no contraindications to vaginal delivery, labor should be augmented with oxytocin to expedite delivery. Cesarean delivery is reserved for standard obstetric indications (e.g., arrest of labor, non-reassuring fetal status) and is not automatically required for chorioamnionitis. Corticosteroids are not indicated at term, and tocolytics are contraindicated as they would delay delivery.
What is the most likely cause of the fetal heart rate finding?
Side effect of epidural analgesia
Maternal fever
Fetal hypoxia
Maternal anxiety
Explanation
Fetal tachycardia is defined as a baseline heart rate greater than 160 bpm for at least 10 minutes. The most common cause of fetal tachycardia is maternal fever, which increases both maternal and fetal metabolic rates. Other causes include maternal dehydration, chorioamnionitis (which also causes fever), certain medications, and fetal hypoxia. In this case, with moderate variability and accelerations present, hypoxia is less likely, and the maternal fever is the most probable explanation.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial action?
Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
Increase the oxytocin infusion rate
Prepare for an amnioinfusion
Administer an intravenous fluid bolus
Explanation
The patient is experiencing uterine tachysystole (more than 5 contractions in 10 minutes), which is a potential side effect of oxytocin. The excessive contractions are compromising uteroplacental blood flow, leading to late decelerations. The most appropriate initial action is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion to reduce uterine activity. Other intrauterine resuscitation measures, such as maternal repositioning and IV fluids, should also be initiated, but stopping the offending agent is the priority.