Hypertension And Vascular Disorders

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USMLE Step 2 CK › Hypertension And Vascular Disorders

Questions 1 - 6
1

A 60-year-old man with HTN presents with sudden chest pain and neurologic deficits; BP 205/115, CXR widened mediastinum. Which diagnostic test should be performed next?

Head CT only to rule out stroke

Exercise stress test after pain resolves

Esophagogastroduodenoscopy for ulcer evaluation

Ventilation-perfusion scan for PE diagnosis

CT angiography of the chest immediately

Explanation

This question tests knowledge of hypertension and vascular disorders relevant to USMLE Step 2 CK. Hypertension management involves accurate diagnosis, assessment of severity, and implementation of appropriate treatment strategies. In this scenario, the patient's presentation of sudden chest pain, neurologic deficits, BP 205/115, and widened mediastinum indicate aortic dissection with complications. The correct answer, A, is justified because CT angiography urgently confirms dissection and guides management in this emergency. In contrast, B is incorrect due to head CT alone missing the aortic pathology causing symptoms. Effective teaching strategies include reinforcing the understanding of evidence-based guidelines for aortic disorders, emphasizing the importance of context-specific decision-making, and practicing the identification of vascular emergencies.

2

A 64-year-old man with sudden tearing chest pain has BP 210/120; CT confirms type B aortic dissection without malperfusion. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Start IV beta-blocker and titrate BP down

Give IV fluids to maintain high pressure

Discharge with oral antihypertensives and follow-up

Proceed directly to emergent surgical repair

Start thrombolytics for presumed myocardial infarction

Explanation

This question tests knowledge of hypertension and vascular disorders relevant to USMLE Step 2 CK. Hypertension management involves accurate diagnosis, assessment of severity, and implementation of appropriate treatment strategies. In this scenario, the patient's presentation of sudden tearing chest pain, BP 210/120, and type B aortic dissection without malperfusion indicate need for medical management. The correct answer, A, is justified because IV beta-blocker controls heart rate and BP to stabilize uncomplicated type B dissection per guidelines. In contrast, B is incorrect due to emergent surgery being reserved for complicated cases with malperfusion. Effective teaching strategies include reinforcing the understanding of evidence-based guidelines for aortic dissection, emphasizing the importance of context-specific decision-making, and practicing the identification of vascular emergencies.

3

A 71-year-old man with HTN and CAD develops sudden severe back pain; BP 200/115, unequal arm pressures, new diastolic murmur. Which diagnostic test should be performed next?

D-dimer assay and outpatient follow-up

Coronary angiography for STEMI evaluation

Barium swallow study for esophageal spasm

MRI brain without contrast imaging

CT angiography of chest and abdomen

Explanation

This question tests knowledge of hypertension and vascular disorders relevant to USMLE Step 2 CK. Hypertension management involves accurate diagnosis, assessment of severity, and implementation of appropriate treatment strategies. In this scenario, the patient's presentation of sudden severe back pain, BP 200/115, unequal arm pressures, and new diastolic murmur indicate aortic dissection. The correct answer, A, is justified because CT angiography of the chest and abdomen confirms the diagnosis and extent of dissection in this vascular emergency. In contrast, B is incorrect due to MRI brain focusing on unrelated neurologic issues without addressing the aortic pathology. Effective teaching strategies include reinforcing the understanding of evidence-based guidelines for aortic disorders, emphasizing the importance of context-specific decision-making, and practicing the identification of vascular emergencies.

4

A 58-year-old woman with long-standing HTN, CKD, and smoking presents with severe headache and blurred vision; BP 240/130, papilledema. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Give IV labetalol and admit to ICU

Treat as migraine with triptan therapy

Start oral clonidine and discharge home

Increase thiazide dose and recheck tomorrow

Recommend DASH diet and follow up

Explanation

This question tests knowledge of hypertension and vascular disorders relevant to USMLE Step 2 CK. Hypertension management involves accurate diagnosis, assessment of severity, and implementation of appropriate treatment strategies. In this scenario, the patient's presentation of severe headache, blurred vision, BP 240/130, and papilledema indicate hypertensive emergency with end-organ damage. The correct answer, B, is justified because IV labetalol allows controlled BP reduction in an ICU setting to prevent further neurologic deterioration, aligning with guidelines for malignant hypertension. In contrast, A is incorrect due to using oral clonidine for discharge, which is inappropriate for acute end-organ involvement requiring inpatient monitoring. Effective teaching strategies include reinforcing the understanding of evidence-based guidelines for hypertensive crises, emphasizing the importance of context-specific decision-making, and practicing the identification of end-organ damage in hypertension.

5

A 66-year-old smoker with diabetes has nonhealing toe ulcer and rest pain; ABI 0.35, cool foot, weak pulses. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Refer for urgent vascular revascularization evaluation

Start supervised walking program only

Treat with NSAIDs and reassurance only

Order ankle radiograph and discharge home

Begin high-dose steroids for vasculitis

Explanation

This question tests knowledge of hypertension and vascular disorders relevant to USMLE Step 2 CK. Hypertension management involves accurate diagnosis, assessment of severity, and implementation of appropriate treatment strategies. In this scenario, the patient's presentation of nonhealing toe ulcer, rest pain, ABI 0.35, cool foot, and weak pulses indicate critical limb ischemia in PAD. The correct answer, A, is justified because urgent vascular revascularization evaluation is needed to prevent tissue loss and amputation. In contrast, B is incorrect due to supervised walking being inappropriate for rest pain and severe ischemia. Effective teaching strategies include reinforcing the understanding of evidence-based guidelines for PAD, emphasizing the importance of context-specific decision-making, and practicing the identification of vascular disorders.

6

A 61-year-old woman with HTN presents with sudden tearing chest pain; BP 195/105, widened mediastinum on CXR. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Start aspirin and heparin for NSTEMI

Give oral nifedipine and discharge home

Start IV thrombolysis for presumed PE

Provide antacids for reflux and observe

Start IV beta-blocker to lower shear stress

Explanation

This question tests knowledge of hypertension and vascular disorders relevant to USMLE Step 2 CK. Hypertension management involves accurate diagnosis, assessment of severity, and implementation of appropriate treatment strategies. In this scenario, the patient's presentation of sudden tearing chest pain, BP 195/105, and widened mediastinum on CXR indicate aortic dissection. The correct answer, A, is justified because IV beta-blocker reduces heart rate and shear stress, which is critical before vasodilators in dissection management. In contrast, B is incorrect due to thrombolysis being contraindicated and potentially harmful in dissection mimicking PE. Effective teaching strategies include reinforcing the understanding of evidence-based guidelines for aortic dissection, emphasizing the importance of context-specific decision-making, and practicing the identification of vascular emergencies.