Headache And Episodic Neurologic Disorders
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USMLE Step 2 CK › Headache And Episodic Neurologic Disorders
Which of the following is the most appropriate management strategy to offer this patient?
Initiate prophylactic therapy with topiramate
Recommend a trial of butalbital-containing analgesics
Increase the frequency of rizatriptan use
Obtain an electroencephalogram (EEG)
Explanation
Prophylactic therapy is indicated for patients with frequent (≥4 per month) or debilitating migraines, or for those whose acute treatments are ineffective or contraindicated. This patient's headache frequency and impact on her life meet the criteria for initiating prophylaxis. Topiramate is a first-line, FDA-approved medication for migraine prevention. Increasing the use of abortive medications like triptans can lead to medication overuse headache. Butalbital-containing compounds have a high risk of dependence and medication overuse headache and are generally avoided. An EEG is not indicated in the evaluation of typical migraines.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Cluster headache
Tension-type headache
Migraine without aura
Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Explanation
This presentation is pathognomonic for cluster headache. Key features include the male predominance, circadian rhythmicity (waking from sleep), short duration of attacks (15-180 minutes), severe unilateral periorbital pain, and associated ipsilateral cranial autonomic symptoms (lacrimation, conjunctival injection, nasal congestion). The associated restlessness or agitation is also characteristic. Migraine is typically throbbing and associated with photophobia/phonophobia. Tension headache is a dull, bilateral pressure. Acute glaucoma presents with a painful red eye and blurry vision/halos, but not typically in this recurrent, short-lived pattern.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic step?
Obtain a non-contrast CT scan of the head
Perform a lumbar puncture
Administer intravenous labetalol
Order an MRI of the brain with contrast
Explanation
A sudden-onset, "thunderclap" headache is a neurologic emergency highly concerning for subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). The first-line diagnostic test is a non-contrast head CT, which is highly sensitive for detecting acute blood in the subarachnoid space. While controlling her blood pressure is important, diagnosis must be established first. A lumbar puncture is the next step if the CT is negative but clinical suspicion for SAH remains high. MRI is less sensitive for acute hemorrhage than CT.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Tension-type headache
Medication overuse headache
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
Migraine without aura
Explanation
This patient's symptoms are characteristic of tension-type headache, the most common type of primary headache. Key features include the bilateral location, non-pulsating or 'band-like' quality, mild-to-moderate intensity, and lack of associated features like nausea, photophobia, or phonophobia. The headache does not worsen with routine activity. Migraines are typically unilateral, pulsating, and have associated symptoms. Medication overuse headache requires a history of frequent analgesic use. Idiopathic intracranial hypertension typically presents with features of increased intracranial pressure like papilledema and visual changes.
What is the most likely cause of this patient's loss of consciousness?
Vasovagal syncope
Generalized seizure
Cardiogenic syncope
Orthostatic hypotension
Explanation
This is a classic presentation of vasovagal (neurally mediated) syncope. The key features are a clear precipitating event (emotional stress), a characteristic prodrome of autonomic activation (lightheadedness, nausea, diaphoresis), a brief period of unconsciousness, and a rapid return to baseline without a significant postictal period. Cardiogenic syncope is less likely in a young, healthy individual and often occurs with exertion or without warning. A seizure would typically be associated with a postictal state of confusion. Orthostatic hypotension is related to postural changes, which was not the trigger here.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
Brain tumor
Tension-type headache
Migraine
Explanation
This patient's constellation of symptoms is highly suggestive of idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH), also known as pseudotumor cerebri. This condition is most common in obese women of childbearing age. Key features include headache with signs of increased intracranial pressure (worse with Valsalva, morning predominance), papilledema (optic disc swelling), transient visual obscurations, and pulsatile tinnitus. While a brain tumor can cause similar symptoms of increased ICP, IIH is more likely given the patient's demographic profile and the classic symptom cluster. A brain imaging (MRI) would be needed to rule out a structural lesion.
The patient's symptoms are most likely due to which of the following?
Carotid artery stenosis
Cardiac arrhythmia
Orthostatic hypotension
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
Explanation
This patient has orthostatic hypotension, defined as a drop in systolic blood pressure of ≥20 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure of ≥10 mmHg within 3 minutes of standing. His blood pressure dropped by 25 mmHg systolic. This is a common cause of syncope and presyncope in the elderly, often exacerbated by medications such as diuretics (hydrochlorothiazide), calcium channel blockers (amlodipine), and alpha-blockers (tamsulosin). BPPV causes vertigo, not syncope. Carotid stenosis and arrhythmias are less likely given the clear postural trigger.
These clinical features are most characteristic of which of the following?
Psychogenic nonepileptic seizure
Vasovagal syncope
Generalized tonic-clonic seizure
Cardiogenic syncope with myoclonic jerks
Explanation
The constellation of features—a tonic phase (rigidity) followed by a clonic phase (rhythmic jerking), tongue biting (especially lateral), and a prolonged postictal state of confusion—is highly characteristic of a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. While syncope can sometimes be associated with brief myoclonic jerks due to cerebral hypoxia, the prolonged and organized tonic-clonic activity and the significant postictal phase strongly point towards a seizure. Psychogenic nonepileptic seizures often have asynchronous movements, pelvic thrusting, and are not typically associated with a postictal state or significant injury like tongue biting.
Which of the following interventions is most likely to reduce his risk of a future stroke?
Performing carotid endarterectomy
Repeating carotid ultrasound in 6 months
Initiating anticoagulation with warfarin
Adding clopidogrel for long-term dual antiplatelet therapy
Explanation
For patients with a recent TIA or minor ischemic stroke who have symptomatic, high-grade (70-99%) stenosis of the internal carotid artery, carotid endarterectomy (CEA) has been shown to provide a significant reduction in the risk of subsequent stroke when added to best medical therapy. The benefit is greatest when the procedure is performed within two weeks of the event. Long-term dual antiplatelet therapy is not generally recommended over monotherapy outside of specific situations. Warfarin is for cardioembolic sources (e.g., atrial fibrillation). Surveillance alone is insufficient for this degree of symptomatic stenosis.
Which of the following is the most appropriate prophylactic treatment for this patient's condition?
Amitriptyline
Verapamil
Sumatriptan
Oxycodone
Explanation
The patient's symptoms are consistent with frequent episodic tension-type headache. When these headaches are frequent and bothersome enough to warrant prophylaxis, amitriptyline is a first-line pharmacologic option. Behavioral therapies and stress management are also important. Sumatriptan is an abortive therapy for migraine. Verapamil is used for cluster headache prophylaxis. Oxycodone is an opioid and is not appropriate for headache management.