Anemias & cytopenias

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USMLE Step 2 CK › Anemias & cytopenias

Questions 1 - 10
1

The pathogenesis of this patient's anemia is primarily driven by the systemic elevation of which of the following substances?

Hepcidin

Tumor necrosis factor-alpha

Erythropoietin

Haptoglobin

Explanation

This patient has anemia of chronic disease (ACD), also known as anemia of inflammation, secondary to his rheumatoid arthritis. The laboratory pattern of low serum iron, low TIBC, and high ferritin is characteristic of ACD. The central pathophysiologic mechanism involves inflammatory cytokines (like IL-6) stimulating the liver to produce hepcidin. Hepcidin is a peptide hormone that downregulates ferroportin, the iron transport channel on enterocytes and macrophages. This leads to decreased intestinal iron absorption and increased iron sequestration within macrophages, resulting in a functional iron deficiency despite adequate body stores (high ferritin).

2

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient's condition?

Erythropoietin injections

Intravenous iron dextran

Oral ferrous sulfate

Packed red blood cell transfusion

Explanation

This patient presents with classic signs and symptoms of iron deficiency anemia (fatigue, exertional dyspnea, pica, koilonychia) secondary to menorrhagia, confirmed by microcytic anemia on lab testing. The most appropriate initial treatment for uncomplicated iron deficiency anemia in a hemodynamically stable patient is oral iron replacement, such as ferrous sulfate. Blood transfusion is reserved for hemodynamically unstable patients or those with severe symptoms (e.g., angina). IV iron is typically used for patients who cannot tolerate or absorb oral iron, or have ongoing blood loss that outpaces oral replacement. Erythropoietin is used for anemia of chronic kidney disease or chemotherapy-induced anemia.

3

Which of the following is the most appropriate long-term management for this patient's anemia?

Oral ferrous sulfate supplementation

Parenteral vitamin B12 supplementation

High-dose oral folic acid

A diet rich in leafy green vegetables

Explanation

This patient has macrocytic anemia due to vitamin B12 deficiency, confirmed by a low serum B12 level and elevated levels of both MMA and homocysteine. Her Crohn disease involving the terminal ileum is the cause, as this is the primary site of vitamin B12 absorption. Because her deficiency is due to malabsorption, oral supplementation is unlikely to be effective. Therefore, the most appropriate long-term management is parenteral (intramuscular or subcutaneous) vitamin B12 supplementation to bypass the gut.

4

This patient's acute hemolytic episode is most likely due to an inherited deficiency of which enzyme?

Spectrin

Catalase

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

Pyruvate kinase

Explanation

This is a classic presentation of acute hemolysis secondary to G6PD deficiency, an X-linked recessive disorder common in individuals of African, Mediterranean, and Asian descent. The deficiency impairs the ability of red blood cells to handle oxidative stress. Drugs like dapsone, sulfonamides, and antimalarials can precipitate hemolysis. The oxidative stress leads to the formation of Heinz bodies (denatured hemoglobin), which are removed by splenic macrophages, creating 'bite cells.' Pyruvate kinase deficiency is a rare cause of chronic hemolytic anemia. Spectrin deficiency causes hereditary spherocytosis. Catalase is an antioxidant enzyme, but its deficiency is not associated with this clinical picture.

5

Which of the following investigations is required to establish a definitive diagnosis?

Serum vitamin B12 and folate levels

Abdominal ultrasound

Flow cytometry of peripheral blood

Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy

Explanation

The patient's presentation with pancytopenia (anemia, thrombocytopenia, and neutropenia) and a low reticulocyte count (indicating a hypoproliferative state) is highly suspicious for aplastic anemia. While other conditions can cause pancytopenia, the most definitive diagnostic test to confirm aplastic anemia is a bone marrow aspiration and biopsy. This will show a markedly hypocellular or 'empty' marrow, with fat replacing hematopoietic cells. Vitamin levels should be checked, but they are unlikely to explain the full picture. Flow cytometry is used for PNH or leukemia. An ultrasound might show splenomegaly but is not diagnostic for the primary marrow failure.

6

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Sickle cell trait

Hereditary spherocytosis

Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia

G6PD deficiency

Explanation

This patient's presentation of chronic, mild hemolytic anemia with intermittent jaundice (worsened by stressors like illness), splenomegaly, and a positive family history is classic for hereditary spherocytosis (HS). Key laboratory findings are the elevated MCHC (due to cellular dehydration and the spherical shape of RBCs) and a negative Coombs test, which rules out autoimmune hemolysis. The diagnosis can be confirmed with an osmotic fragility test or eosin-5-maleimide (EMA) binding test. G6PD deficiency presents with episodic, not chronic, hemolysis. Sickle cell trait is typically asymptomatic.

7

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?

Discontinue phenytoin

Start high-dose corticosteroids

Administer a platelet transfusion

Perform a bone marrow biopsy

Explanation

The patient presents with severe, isolated thrombocytopenia. While immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is a consideration, a significant number of cases of isolated thrombocytopenia are drug-induced. Phenytoin is a well-known cause of drug-induced immune thrombocytopenia. The first and most critical step in management is to stop the offending agent. If the platelet count recovers after discontinuation, the diagnosis is confirmed. Corticosteroids are used for ITP, but ruling out a drug cause is paramount. Platelet transfusion is only indicated for life-threatening bleeding. A bone marrow biopsy may be considered if the platelet count does not recover or if other cytopenias develop.

8

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to confirm the diagnosis?

Bone marrow biopsy

Direct antiglobulin (Coombs) test

Hemoglobin electrophoresis

Osmotic fragility test

Explanation

The patient's presentation with acute anemia, signs of hemolysis (jaundice, dark urine, high indirect bilirubin, high LDH, high reticulocytes), and spherocytes on smear, in the context of SLE, is highly suggestive of warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA). The definitive diagnostic test for AIHA is the direct antiglobulin (Coombs) test, which detects IgG antibodies and/or complement C3 bound to the surface of the patient's red blood cells. The osmotic fragility test is used for hereditary spherocytosis. Hemoglobin electrophoresis is for hemoglobinopathies. A bone marrow biopsy is not indicated as a first step.

9

What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

Acute myeloid leukemia

Myelodysplastic syndrome

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

Aplastic anemia

Explanation

This patient's presentation of macrocytic anemia with other cytopenias (leukopenia, thrombocytopenia) in an older adult, along with dysplastic features on the peripheral smear (pseudo-Pelger-Huët anomaly), is highly characteristic of myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). MDS is a group of clonal hematopoietic stem cell disorders characterized by ineffective hematopoiesis, leading to cytopenias and a risk of transformation to acute myeloid leukemia (AML). While AML would present with blasts, MDS is defined by dysplasia. Aplastic anemia presents with pancytopenia but typically lacks dysplastic features. CLL involves lymphocytosis, not pancytopenia.

10

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Myelodysplastic syndrome

Vitamin B12 deficiency

Anemia of chronic disease

Folate deficiency

Explanation

This patient's presentation of macrocytic anemia (MCV 115) with characteristic peripheral smear findings (hypersegmented neutrophils) and prominent neurologic symptoms (paresthesias, gait instability, memory changes) is classic for vitamin B12 (cobalamin) deficiency. Her history of partial gastrectomy is a significant risk factor, as it can lead to the loss of intrinsic factor-producing parietal cells, causing malabsorption of B12. Folate deficiency causes a similar megaloblastic anemia but does not cause the neurologic deficits seen here. Myelodysplastic syndrome can cause macrocytic anemia but is less likely to present with these specific neurologic findings. Anemia of chronic disease is typically normocytic or mildly microcytic.

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