Acute Neurologic Emergencies

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USMLE Step 2 CK › Acute Neurologic Emergencies

Questions 1 - 10
1

What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test to guide immediate management?

Non-contrast CT scan of the head

Lumbar puncture with cerebrospinal fluid analysis

Carotid artery duplex ultrasonography

MRI of the brain with diffusion-weighted imaging

Explanation

In any patient presenting with acute focal neurologic deficits suggestive of a stroke, the most critical initial step is to differentiate between ischemic and hemorrhagic stroke, as their management is drastically different. A non-contrast CT scan of the head is the fastest and most widely available imaging modality to reliably detect acute intracranial hemorrhage. While MRI with DWI is more sensitive for early ischemia, it takes longer to perform and is not the first-line test. The immediate priority is to rule out a bleed before considering therapies like thrombolysis. Carotid ultrasound and lumbar puncture are not indicated for the initial evaluation of acute stroke.

2

Which of the following is the most likely finding on the head CT scan?

A crescent-shaped hyperdensity along the cerebral convexity consistent with subdural hematoma

Hypodensity in the middle cerebral artery territory consistent with acute ischemic stroke

Hyperdensity in the basilar cisterns and sulci consistent with subarachnoid hemorrhage

Hyperdensity in the basal ganglia consistent with hypertensive hemorrhage

Explanation

This patient's presentation with a sudden-onset, severe "thunderclap" headache, vomiting, nuchal rigidity, and decreased level of consciousness is classic for a subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). The most common cause of non-traumatic SAH is a ruptured saccular (berry) aneurysm. A non-contrast head CT is the initial diagnostic test of choice and would show hyperdense (bright) blood in the subarachnoid space, including the basilar cisterns and sulci. If the CT is negative but clinical suspicion remains high, a lumbar puncture should be performed to look for xanthochromia.

3

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Administer aspirin 325 mg

Perform CT angiography of the head and neck

Administer intravenous labetalol to lower blood pressure to <140/90 mm Hg

Administer intravenous alteplase

Explanation

This patient presents with classic signs of an acute ischemic stroke within the 3-hour window for thrombolysis (and up to 4.5 hours in eligible patients). The non-contrast head CT has appropriately ruled out hemorrhage. Her blood pressure is below the 185/110 mm Hg contraindication threshold for alteplase (tPA). Therefore, the most appropriate next step is to administer intravenous alteplase to attempt reperfusion. CT angiography is useful for identifying large vessel occlusion for potential thrombectomy but should not delay tPA administration. Aggressively lowering blood pressure to <140/90 mm Hg is not indicated and could worsen cerebral perfusion. Aspirin should be administered, but not until 24 hours after tPA administration to reduce the risk of hemorrhagic conversion.

4

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic treatment?

Intravenous fosphenytoin

Intravenous lorazepam

Intravenous levetiracetam

Intravenous phenobarbital

Explanation

This patient is in status epilepticus, defined as a continuous seizure lasting more than 5 minutes or recurrent seizures without a return to baseline. The initial management priority is to terminate the seizure. First-line therapy is an intravenous benzodiazepine, such as lorazepam, diazepam, or midazolam. These medications enhance the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA, causing widespread CNS inhibition. If the seizure persists after an adequate dose of a benzodiazepine, a second-line agent such as fosphenytoin, valproic acid, or levetiracetam should be administered. Phenobarbital is typically reserved for refractory status epilepticus.

5

In addition to arranging for urgent neuroimaging and neurosurgical consultation, which of the following is the most appropriate immediate intervention?

Administration of intravenous sodium bicarbonate

Administration of intravenous dexamethasone

Lumbar puncture to measure opening pressure

Initiation of broad-spectrum antibiotics

Explanation

This patient's presentation, including the triad of hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations (Cushing's triad), along with papilledema, is highly suggestive of acutely increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Given her history of brain metastases, this is likely due to vasogenic edema surrounding the tumors. The most appropriate immediate intervention is to administer high-dose intravenous corticosteroids, such as dexamethasone, which rapidly reduces vasogenic edema and can alleviate symptoms of increased ICP. Antibiotics are not indicated. A lumbar puncture is contraindicated due to the risk of uncal herniation. Sodium bicarbonate is not a primary treatment for increased ICP.

6

Which of the following interventions should be performed most urgently?

Placement of an external ventricular drain

Administration of prophylactic antibiotics

Infusion of 3% hypertonic saline

Endotracheal intubation and controlled hyperventilation

Explanation

This patient has a severe traumatic brain injury (GCS < 8) with clinical signs of uncal herniation (anisocoria with a fixed, dilated pupil). This is a neurosurgical emergency due to rapidly increasing intracranial pressure (ICP). The most urgent intervention is to secure the airway via endotracheal intubation and initiate controlled hyperventilation. Hyperventilation causes cerebral vasoconstriction by lowering PaCO2, which transiently reduces cerebral blood volume and ICP. This serves as a critical bridge to more definitive treatments like osmotic therapy (hypertonic saline or mannitol) or surgical intervention (e.g., craniotomy, EVD placement). Prophylactic antibiotics are not the most urgent step.

7

Which of the following is a contraindication to administering alteplase in this patient?

Age greater than 75 years

Blood pressure of 165/90 mm Hg

Major surgery within the past 3 months

History of hypertension

Explanation

The administration of intravenous alteplase (tPA) has strict inclusion and exclusion criteria to minimize the risk of bleeding. A major surgery, such as a total knee replacement, within the preceding 3 months is an absolute contraindication to tPA due to the high risk of severe bleeding at the surgical site. While advanced age was previously a relative contraindication, current guidelines support its use in older adults. The patient's blood pressure is below the 185/110 mm Hg threshold. A history of hypertension is not a contraindication, although uncontrolled hypertension at the time of administration is.

8

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Administer an intravenous loading dose of fosphenytoin

Admit the patient for continuous EEG monitoring

Administer a dose of oral lamotrigine and arrange for a refill

Obtain an urgent MRI of the brain with contrast

Explanation

This patient had a single, self-limited breakthrough seizure in the context of a known seizure disorder and medication nonadherence. Since the seizure has terminated and she is returning to baseline, she is not in status epilepticus. The most appropriate management is to address the underlying cause, which is the missed medication. She should be given a dose of her home antiepileptic drug (lamotrigine) and provided with a prescription refill. Administering a loading dose of a different antiepileptic like fosphenytoin is unnecessary as she is not actively seizing and could cause adverse effects. Urgent neuroimaging and continuous EEG are not indicated for a simple breakthrough seizure with a clear precipitant.

9

Which of the following cerebrospinal fluid findings would be most diagnostic of a subarachnoid hemorrhage in this patient?

Low glucose concentration

Lymphocytic pleocytosis

Elevated protein with a normal cell count

Xanthochromia

Explanation

When a non-contrast head CT is negative in a patient with a high suspicion for subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH), the next step is a lumbar puncture (LP). The most specific finding for SAH on LP is xanthochromia, which is the yellow discoloration of the CSF due to bilirubin from the breakdown of red blood cells. Xanthochromia takes several hours to develop and distinguishes a true hemorrhage from a traumatic tap (where the RBC count would be high but no xanthochromia would be present). Lymphocytic pleocytosis suggests viral meningitis, low glucose suggests bacterial meningitis, and albuminocytologic dissociation (high protein, normal cells) is seen in Guillain-Barré syndrome.

10

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Hemorrhagic stroke of the basal ganglia

Transient ischemic attack of the carotid territory

Acute labyrinthitis

Ischemic stroke of the cerebellum

Explanation

This patient's constellation of acute-onset vertigo, nystagmus, dysmetria, and gait ataxia points strongly to a cerebellar lesion. These are the classic signs of a posterior circulation stroke affecting the cerebellum. Acute labyrinthitis typically presents with vertigo and nystagmus but not with focal neurologic signs like dysmetria or ataxia. A basal ganglia hemorrhage would cause contralateral hemiparesis. A carotid territory TIA would cause symptoms like transient monocular blindness (amaurosis fugax) or unilateral weakness/numbness, not cerebellar signs.

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