Transcription, Translation, And Regulation
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USMLE Step 1 › Transcription, Translation, And Regulation
The cellular machinery targeted in this patient's condition is primarily responsible for which of the following processes?
Removal of introns from pre-mRNA
Degradation of proteins marked with ubiquitin
Covalent attachment of amino acids to tRNA
Addition of a 7-methylguanosine cap to the 5' end of mRNA
Explanation
This patient's presentation is classic for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE). Anti-Smith antibodies, which are highly specific for SLE, target small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs). These snRNPs are core components of the spliceosome, the complex responsible for removing non-coding sequences (introns) from pre-mRNA transcripts in the nucleus. The other options describe different, unrelated cellular processes.
This condition is most likely caused by a defect in the post-translational addition of which of the following to lysosomal enzymes?
N-acetylglucosamine
Farnesyl pyrophosphate
Mannose-6-phosphate
Ubiquitin
Explanation
This is a classic presentation of I-cell disease (Mucolipidosis II), a lysosomal storage disorder. It is caused by a deficiency in N-acetylglucosaminyl-1-phosphotransferase. This enzyme catalyzes the first step in adding a mannose-6-phosphate (M6P) tag to lysosomal enzymes in the Golgi apparatus. This M6P tag acts as a molecular address label, targeting these enzymes for transport to the lysosome. Without the tag, the enzymes are incorrectly secreted from the cell, leading to their high levels in the serum and deficiency within lysosomes.
Treatment with this agent would most likely lead to which of the following changes in the chromatin of target cells?
Increased positive charge of histone tails and DNA condensation
Formation of heterochromatin and gene silencing
Increased methylation of CpG islands in promoter regions
Decreased affinity of histones for DNA and increased transcription
Explanation
Histone acetylation removes the positive charge from lysine residues on histone tails, reducing their affinity for negatively charged DNA. This leads to a more relaxed chromatin structure (euchromatin), which is accessible to transcription factors and RNA polymerase, thus promoting gene expression. HDACs remove these acetyl groups, promoting condensation. An HDAC inhibitor would therefore cause an accumulation of acetylated histones, leading to decreased histone-DNA affinity and increased transcription of target genes, such as tumor suppressors.
This genetic alteration is best classified as which type of mutation?
Missense
Silent
Nonsense
Frameshift
Explanation
The genetic code includes start and stop codons. The codon UGG codes for the amino acid tryptophan. The codon UGA is one of the three stop codons (along with UAA and UAG). A mutation that changes an amino acid-coding codon into a stop codon is called a nonsense mutation. This results in the premature termination of translation and the production of a truncated, usually nonfunctional, protein.
The normal function of this miRNA is most likely to cause which of the following?
Increased transcription of the oncogene
Repression of translation of the oncogene mRNA
Enhanced stability of the oncogene mRNA
Alternative splicing of the oncogene pre-mRNA
Explanation
MicroRNAs (miRNAs) are small, non-coding RNAs that regulate gene expression post-transcriptionally. They bind to complementary sequences, typically in the 3' UTR of target mRNAs. This binding recruits a protein complex (RISC) that either leads to the degradation of the mRNA (if binding is perfectly complementary) or, more commonly in animals, represses translation (if binding is imperfect). Therefore, the normal function of this tumor-suppressive miRNA is to decrease the production of the oncoprotein by repressing translation.
The presence of this intronic sequence in the mature mRNA is most likely to result in which of the following?
Synthesis of a structurally normal but unstable β-globin protein
A frameshift and premature termination of translation
Inhibition of the addition of the 5' cap to the mRNA
A complete failure of transcription of the β-globin gene
Explanation
Mutations that create new splice sites (cryptic splice sites) lead to incorrect splicing of pre-mRNA. In this case, including a portion of an intron in the mature mRNA will alter the reading frame because the number of inserted nucleotides is unlikely to be a multiple of three. This frameshift will change the amino acid sequence downstream of the insertion and almost always introduces a premature stop codon, leading to the synthesis of a truncated and nonfunctional β-globin protein. This is a common mechanism in some forms of β-thalassemia.
Doxycycline exerts its bacteriostatic effect by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit and directly blocking which of the following steps?
Translocation of the ribosome along the mRNA
Assembly of the 70S initiation complex
Binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site
Formation of the peptide bond
Explanation
Tetracycline antibiotics, including doxycycline, work by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit of prokaryotes. This binding sterically hinders the attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA to the acceptor (A) site of the ribosome, thereby preventing the addition of new amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain and halting protein synthesis. Formation of the peptide bond is inhibited by chloramphenicol. Translocation is inhibited by macrolides and clindamycin.
The proteins that are targeted for degradation by the cellular machinery inhibited by this drug are typically tagged with which of the following?
A mannose-6-phosphate group
A polyubiquitin chain
A poly(A) tail
A signal peptide sequence
Explanation
The proteasome is a large protein complex responsible for degrading damaged or unneeded proteins. The primary signal that targets a protein for proteasomal degradation is the covalent attachment of a polyubiquitin chain. Proteasome inhibitors block this degradation pathway, causing toxic accumulation of these tagged proteins and triggering apoptosis, an effect that is particularly potent in rapidly dividing cancer cells like myeloma cells.
The low level of cAMP directly results in which of the following?
Catabolite activator protein (CAP) does not bind to the promoter region
RNA polymerase cannot bind to the operator
The lac repressor protein remains bound to the operator
Allolactose cannot bind to the repressor protein
Explanation
High levels of transcription from the lac operon require two conditions: the presence of lactose (to inactivate the repressor) and the absence of glucose. Glucose presence leads to low cAMP. Cyclic AMP binds to the catabolite activator protein (CAP), and this cAMP-CAP complex binds to the promoter region of the lac operon, greatly enhancing the affinity of RNA polymerase for the promoter. When cAMP is low, CAP is inactive and does not bind, resulting in low levels of transcription even if lactose is present and the repressor is inactive. This mechanism is called catabolite repression.
The binding of which of the following components to the 40S subunit is directly mediated by a GTP-bound initiation factor?
mRNA
Initiator tRNA (Met-tRNAi)
Poly(A)-binding protein
The 60S ribosomal subunit
Explanation
During eukaryotic translation initiation, the initiator tRNA (Met-tRNAi) is brought to the 40S ribosomal subunit by eukaryotic initiation factor 2 (eIF2). eIF2 is a G-protein that is active when bound to GTP. The ternary complex of eIF2-GTP-Met-tRNAi binds to the 40S subunit to form the preinitiation complex. The binding of mRNA is mediated by the eIF4F complex. The joining of the 60S subunit occurs later and requires GTP hydrolysis by eIF5B.