Genetic Testing And Diagnostics

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USMLE Step 1 › Genetic Testing And Diagnostics

Questions 1 - 10
1

The fundamental principle that allows this DNA 'probe' to bind specifically to its target sequence on the chromosome is known as which of the following?

Hybridization

Polymerization

Translation

Reverse transcription

Explanation

Hybridization is the process by which a single-stranded nucleic acid molecule (DNA or RNA) anneals to its complementary sequence through hydrogen bonds between the bases. This principle of specific base pairing (A with T, G with C) is the foundation for techniques like FISH, Southern blotting, Northern blotting, and microarrays, where a labeled probe is used to detect a target sequence.

2

This research method, which tracks the co-segregation of a genetic marker and a disease phenotype within a family, is best described as which of the following?

Cytogenetic analysis

Genome-wide association study (GWAS)

Case-control study

Linkage analysis

Explanation

Linkage analysis is a method used to map a disease-causing gene to a specific chromosomal region by studying its inheritance pattern alongside known genetic markers in large families. Markers that are physically close to the disease gene on a chromosome tend to be inherited together (i.e., they are 'linked') and will not assort independently. GWAS is a population-based study to find common variants associated with common diseases, not for mapping rare single-gene disorders in families.

3

Which of the following is the most accurate interpretation to provide to the patient?

Her risk of being a carrier is significantly reduced, but a small residual risk remains.

She should have an enzyme assay instead, as DNA testing is unreliable.

She and her partner can have a child with Tay-Sachs disease.

She has zero risk of being a carrier for Tay-Sachs disease.

Explanation

Targeted mutation analysis only screens for a specific set of common mutations. A negative result means the person does not carry any of the mutations tested, which significantly lowers their risk. However, it does not rule out the possibility that they could be a carrier of a rare, untested mutation in the same gene. Therefore, a small residual risk of being a carrier always remains after a negative targeted screening test.

4

The normal karyotype result rules out a large structural or numerical chromosomal abnormality but cannot detect which of the following?

Trisomy 18

A balanced reciprocal translocation

A single-gene point mutation

A large deletion of the short arm of chromosome 5

Explanation

A karyotype provides a low-resolution, microscopic view of the chromosomes. It is excellent for detecting aneuploidy (abnormal chromosome number), such as trisomy 18, and large structural changes like major deletions or translocations. However, its resolution is far too low to detect changes within a single gene, such as a point mutation, a small deletion, or an insertion, which require molecular techniques like DNA sequencing.

5

Which of the following molecular diagnostic techniques is most appropriate to confirm the diagnosis by determining the number of CAG repeats in the HTT gene?

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

Western blotting

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) with fragment analysis

Karyotyping

Explanation

Huntington disease is a trinucleotide repeat disorder. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used to amplify the region of the HTT gene containing the CAG repeat. The size of the resulting DNA fragment, which is proportional to the number of repeats, can then be accurately determined by fragment analysis (e.g., capillary electrophoresis). This is the standard method for diagnosing such disorders. Karyotyping is used for large chromosomal abnormalities. Western blotting detects proteins, not gene repeats. ELISA detects antigens or antibodies.

6

Which of the following genetic tests is the most specific and sensitive method for detecting this microdeletion?

Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)

Serum calcium measurement

G-banded karyotype

Y-chromosome analysis

Explanation

DiGeorge syndrome is a classic microdeletion syndrome. The deletion at 22q11.2 is typically too small to be visualized on a standard G-banded karyotype. Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) uses a DNA probe specific to the 22q11.2 region, which will fail to bind if the region is deleted, making it the gold standard for diagnosis. Serum calcium is a biochemical finding, not a genetic test. Y-chromosome analysis is irrelevant.

7

This result is most consistent with a diagnosis of Down syndrome due to which of the following mechanisms?

Uniparental disomy

Somatic mosaicism

Meiotic nondisjunction

Robertsonian translocation

Explanation

The karyotype 47,XX,+21 indicates that the child, a female, has 47 chromosomes in total, with an extra copy of chromosome 21. This is the classic karyotype for trisomy 21 (Down syndrome). The most common cause (approximately 95% of cases) is the failure of chromosome 21 to segregate properly during meiosis in a parent (meiotic nondisjunction), leading to a gamete with an extra chromosome 21. Robertsonian translocation would result in 46 chromosomes. Mosaicism would show two cell lines. Uniparental disomy would result in 46 chromosomes.

8

Which of the following molecular techniques is most suitable for rapidly detecting this specific known mutation?

Chromosomal microarray

Northern blotting

Whole genome sequencing

Allele-specific oligonucleotide (ASO) hybridization

Explanation

Allele-specific oligonucleotide (ASO) hybridization uses probes that bind specifically to either the wild-type or the mutant DNA sequence. This makes it an ideal, rapid, and cost-effective method for screening for a known, common point mutation or small deletion like ΔF508. Whole genome sequencing is unnecessarily broad and expensive for this purpose. Northern blotting analyzes RNA, not the DNA mutation itself. Chromosomal microarray detects copy number variants, not small deletions within a gene.

9

The termination of DNA synthesis at specific nucleotide positions during Sanger sequencing is achieved through the incorporation of which of the following?

Methylated cytosine bases

Reverse transcriptase

Dideoxynucleoside triphosphates (ddNTPs)

Ribonucleoside triphosphates (rNTPs)

Explanation

Sanger sequencing, also known as the chain-termination method, relies on the use of dideoxynucleoside triphosphates (ddNTPs). These molecules lack the 3'-hydroxyl group required for the formation of a phosphodiester bond. When a ddNTP is incorporated into the growing DNA strand by DNA polymerase, synthesis is terminated. This creates a set of DNA fragments of different lengths, which allows the sequence to be determined.

10

Which of the following laboratory techniques would be most appropriate to determine if the dystrophin protein is absent in the patient's muscle tissue?

Western blot

Southern blot

Chromosomal microarray

Northern blot

Explanation

The question specifically asks about the presence or absence of a protein. Western blotting is the technique used to separate proteins by size via gel electrophoresis, transfer them to a membrane, and then use a specific antibody (in this case, anti-dystrophin) to detect the protein of interest. Absence of a band would confirm the diagnosis. Southern blot analyzes DNA, Northern blot analyzes RNA, and chromosomal microarray analyzes for DNA copy number variations.

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