Vital Signs And Baseline Comparison

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NCLEX-PN › Vital Signs And Baseline Comparison

Questions 1 - 10
1

Which action should the nurse take first?

Administer a prescribed PRN dose of acetaminophen for the headache.

Recheck the blood pressure in the opposite arm using a manual cuff.

Encourage the client to increase oral fluid intake to 2,000 mL/day.

Notify the primary health care provider (PHCP) of the change in status.

Explanation

The client's blood pressure has significantly increased from their specific baseline and they are symptomatic (headache and flushing). For an entry-level LPN/VN, the priority is to recognize this cue and report the change in condition to the PHCP to prevent potential complications. Administering acetaminophen (A) addresses a symptom but not the urgent hemodynamic change. Rechecking in the opposite arm (B) may be appropriate as a secondary verification step but delays reporting a clear, symptomatic clinical change. Increasing fluid intake (D) is not indicated for hypertension.

2

Which intervention to improve the client's respiratory status should the nurse perform first?

Encourage the client to use the incentive spirometer every 2 hours.

Assist the client to a high-Fowler's position.

Request a prescription for a STAT portable chest X-ray.

Perform a detailed focused neurological assessment.

Explanation

The nurse must prioritize immediate interventions for respiratory distress. Repositioning to a high-Fowler's position is an independent nursing action that facilitates maximal lung expansion and is the first step in addressing the acute drop in SpO2. A portable chest X-ray (A) is a dependent action requiring a prescription and does not directly improve oxygenation. A detailed neurological assessment (C) is not the priority when there is an acute respiratory change requiring immediate intervention. Incentive spirometry (D) is an appropriate preventive measure post-operatively but requires the client to be cooperative and alert; it is not effective as a first-line response to an acute SpO2 drop in a drowsy client and does not address the immediate problem.

3

Which action should the nurse take next?

Document the heart rate as a normal variation related to the client's activity.

Administer the scheduled morning dose of the client's cardiac medication.

Delegate the re-measurement of the heart rate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP).

Manually palpate the client's apical pulse for one full minute.

Explanation

When a client's heart rate changes significantly in rate or rhythm from their established baseline, the LPN/VN must perform focused data collection. An apical pulse assessed for a full minute provides the most accurate characterization of the heart's rate and rhythm in this scenario and is essential before any further action. Documenting as a normal variation (A) is incorrect; 110 bpm and irregular is a meaningful deviation from this client's baseline. Delegating re-measurement to a UAP (B) is inappropriate when the nurse has already identified an abnormal and potentially dangerous change requiring nursing assessment. Administering scheduled cardiac medication (D) could be contraindicated depending on the rhythm and should not precede assessment.

4

Which is the priority nursing hypothesis regarding the client's status?

The client is at high risk for respiratory depression related to medication.

The client has developed a fluid volume deficit from the pre-procedure prep.

The client is experiencing acute pain and is guarding their abdominal muscles.

The client is experiencing a typical and expected recovery phase of sedation.

Explanation

A respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min represents a 50% decrease from the client's baseline of 16 and falls well below the normal adult range of 12 to 20 breaths/min. Combined with difficulty arousing, this constellation of findings is a critical Recognize Cue that signals potential respiratory depression related to residual sedation or opioid effect — not typical recovery. Choice A incorrectly normalizes a dangerous finding. Choice C (fluid volume deficit) does not explain the altered respiratory rate or level of consciousness. Choice D (acute pain with guarding) would typically produce an elevated rather than a depressed respiratory rate.

5

Which clinical finding is the most significant indicator of a change in status when compared to the 0800 baseline?

The increase in respiratory rate to 22 breaths/min.

The decrease in body temperature to 97.8 F (36.6 C).

The decrease in SpO2 to 93%.

The decrease in blood pressure to 102/60 mmHg.

Explanation

The decrease in blood pressure from 130/80 to 102/60 mmHg represents the most significant single departure from this client's 0800 baseline and is the strongest indicator of hemodynamic instability in the immediate post-operative period. While the SpO2 drop to 93% (D) is a concerning finding that warrants continued monitoring, it is more likely a secondary consequence of the hemodynamic instability rather than its primary driver. The RR increase (B) and temperature decrease (A) are meaningful but individually represent less acute threats than the blood pressure change when considered against the full clinical picture of a post-operative patient.

6

Which immediate nursing intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

Administer the client's scheduled oral antihypertensive medication.

Assist the client into a left-lateral (Sims') position for comfort.

Encourage the client to ambulate in the hallway to increase blood pressure.

Place the client in a supine position with the legs slightly elevated.

Explanation

Placing the client in a supine position with legs slightly elevated (modified shock position) promotes venous return to the central circulation and is an appropriate independent nursing action for a client with suspected hypovolemia. Ambulation (B) is contraindicated in a hemodynamically unstable client and risks a fall or further cardiovascular compromise. Administering an antihypertensive (C) is dangerous when the client is already hypotensive and could precipitate cardiovascular collapse. The Sims' position (D) provides no hemodynamic benefit for a client in suspected hypovolemic shock.

7

The nurse has contacted the PHCP and reported the findings. While awaiting new orders, which action is appropriate for the nurse to perform?

Increase the rate of the current maintenance IV fluids according to facility protocol.

Remove the client's sequential compression devices (SCDs) immediately.

Apply a cooling blanket to the client to address the damp skin.

Offer the client a high-protein, high-calorie snack to increase energy.

Explanation

Increasing the IV fluid rate per facility protocol is an appropriate action within LPN/VN scope while awaiting new orders for a client with suspected hypovolemia. Many facilities authorize nurses to adjust maintenance IV flow rates within defined parameters in response to hemodynamic changes. Offering food (B) is inappropriate for a hemodynamically unstable client who may require urgent intervention or return to the OR. Applying a cooling blanket (C) misinterprets the diaphoresis, which is a sympathetic response to hemodynamic compromise rather than a sign of fever requiring cooling. Removing SCDs (D) is contraindicated and increases the client's already-elevated risk for DVT following arthroplasty.

8

How should the nurse interpret this temperature reading for this specific client?

The reading is a normal temperature for a client of this advanced age.

The previous baseline readings were likely recorded inaccurately.

The client is experiencing early signs of environmental hypothermia.

The reading represents a potential low-grade fever based on the client's baseline.

Explanation

In older adults, baseline body temperatures are frequently lower than the traditional 98.6 F (37 C) reference value. This client's consistent baseline is 97.2 F; a current temperature of 99.4 F represents a 2.2 F increase from that personal baseline. When combined with new-onset confusion and dysuria — classic atypical presentations of urinary tract infection in the elderly — this elevation carries significant clinical importance even though 99.4 F would fall within normal range for a younger adult. Choice A incorrectly dismisses the finding by applying a population-level reference rather than a client-specific baseline. Choice C is incorrect; the temperature is elevated, not low. Choice D is an unsupported assumption that discards valid clinical documentation.

9

Which instruction by the nurse provides the UAP with the most effective direction for this assignment?

Notify me immediately if the heart rate for the client in room 402 is greater than 100 beats/min.

Check the vital signs for all four clients and record them in the electronic chart.

Let me know if anyone's blood pressure seems to be a bit high this afternoon.

Please perform the vital sign checks as soon as you have finished with the linen changes.

Explanation

Effective delegation requires the nurse to provide specific, measurable, and actionable parameters. Stating a clear threshold (HR > 100 bpm for the client in room 402) ensures the UAP knows exactly when a finding constitutes a reportable deviation, removing ambiguity and promoting client safety. Choice A uses vague language ('a bit high') that does not give the UAP a clear threshold for reporting. Choice B instructs the UAP on documentation but omits any reporting parameters, meaning an abnormal finding might not be escalated to the nurse. Choice D addresses timing but provides no clinical guidance about what to report.

10

What is the most appropriate nursing action in response to this finding?

Increase the client's oxygen flow rate to 4 L/min via nasal cannula.

Document the finding as consistent with the client's established baseline.

Assist the client into a supine position to rest their respiratory muscles.

Call a rapid response alert for potential respiratory failure.

Explanation

For clients with chronic conditions like COPD, the clinically relevant normal range is defined by the client's individual baseline, not population norms. An SpO2 of 89% falls within this client's established range of 88 to 91%, and the client is alert and asymptomatic — there is no indication for intervention. Increasing oxygen to 4 L/min (A) is potentially dangerous for clients with COPD who may rely on a hypoxic respiratory drive; elevating the SpO2 by increasing supplemental oxygen can blunt that drive, suppress ventilation, and lead to hypercapnic respiratory failure. Calling a rapid response (C) is not indicated for a stable finding within the client's known baseline. The supine position (D) would actually worsen oxygenation in a COPD client by limiting diaphragmatic excursion.

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