Respiratory Status Monitoring And Support
Help Questions
NCLEX-PN › Respiratory Status Monitoring And Support
Which action should the nurse take first?
Assist the client into a high-Fowler's position and encourage deep breathing.
Increase the oxygen flow rate to 6 L/min via a simple face mask.
Perform a focused assessment of the client's lung sounds and chest expansion.
Notify the primary health care provider (PHCP) of the decrease in SpO2.
Explanation
Repositioning the client to a high-Fowler's or orthopneic position is an immediate, independent nursing action that improves lung expansion and reduces the work of breathing. It should precede other interventions because it can produce rapid relief without risk. Choice D (focused lung assessment) is a strong competing option, but the nurse has already performed observation-level assessment — tripod positioning, pursed-lip breathing, and SpO2 reading — which is sufficient to justify an immediate independent intervention before conducting a deeper assessment. Choice A (increasing O2 to 6 L/min) risks suppressing the hypoxic respiratory drive in a COPD client and should not be the first action. Choice C (notifying the PHCP) is appropriate but follows an independent intervention and further assessment.
Which action should the nurse take to ensure safe suctioning for this client?
Use a suction pressure setting of 150 to 200 mmHg for an adult.
Encourage the client to hold their breath during the entire procedure.
Apply continuous suction while inserting the catheter into the tracheostomy.
Limit each suction pass to no more than 10 to 15 seconds.
Explanation
Limiting each suctioning pass to no more than 10 to 15 seconds is the standard safety parameter to prevent hypoxia and mucosal trauma. The nurse should also pre-oxygenate before each pass and allow recovery time between passes. Applying continuous suction during insertion (B) is incorrect; suction should be applied intermittently only while withdrawing the catheter, not during insertion, to prevent mucosal damage and hypoxia. A suction pressure of 150 to 200 mmHg (C) is excessive for adults; the recommended range is 80 to 120 mmHg to prevent airway trauma. Instructing the client to hold their breath (D) is incorrect and counterproductive; clients are encouraged to cough during the procedure to help mobilize secretions.
Which action should the nurse perform first?
Administer the first dose of the prescribed IV antibiotic.
Check the client's SpO2 using a pulse oximeter.
Encourage the client to use an incentive spirometer.
Prepare the client for a stat portable chest X-ray.
Explanation
The client is showing signs of acute respiratory deterioration — accessory muscle use, tachypnea, and subjective air hunger. The nurse must first collect focused data by measuring SpO2 to quantify the severity of gas exchange impairment before intervening or notifying the PHCP. This step takes seconds and immediately informs urgency. Administering the antibiotic (A) treats the underlying infection but does not address the acute respiratory deterioration. Incentive spirometry (C) is inappropriate during active respiratory distress. Preparing for a chest X-ray (D) is a dependent action that follows assessment and provider notification, not precedes them.
Which assessment finding is the most critical indicator of worsening pulmonary edema?
The increase in heart rate to 112 bpm.
The increase in blood pressure to 162/96 mmHg.
The peripheral edema in the lower extremities.
The presence of pink, frothy sputum.
Explanation
Pink, frothy sputum is pathognomonic for acute pulmonary edema — it signals that fluid under pressure is being forced from the pulmonary capillaries directly into the alveoli, severely impairing gas exchange. This is a high-priority, specific indicator of a life-threatening change in status. The blood pressure elevation (A) and tachycardia (C) are consistent with cardiovascular compensation but are non-specific findings that could have multiple causes. Peripheral edema (D) reflects systemic fluid retention, which is a chronic component of heart failure and is not an acute indicator of the current pulmonary crisis.
The nurse recognizes that the client's report of increased difficulty breathing while lying flat (orthopnea) is most likely caused by:
An adverse reaction to her hypertension medication.
Ineffective use of her accessory muscles.
A sudden pulmonary embolism.
Increased venous return and fluid shifting into the lungs.
Explanation
In left-sided heart failure, the supine position increases venous return to the right heart. The failing left ventricle cannot adequately pump this increased volume forward, causing a backup of fluid into the pulmonary circulation and alveoli — producing orthopnea. This is a classic and expected pathophysiological mechanism in decompensated heart failure. A pulmonary embolism (A) would cause sudden-onset dyspnea but is not position-dependent in the way orthopnea is. An adverse medication reaction (C) is not supported by the clinical picture. Accessory muscle use (D) is a compensatory response to the dyspnea, not its cause.
Which intervention should the nurse immediately implement to improve the client's respiratory status?
Place the client in a high-Fowler's position with the feet dangling.
Encourage the client to lie on her left side to improve cardiac output.
Perform vigorous chest physiotherapy to clear the sputum.
Administer a prescribed oral beta-blocker.
Explanation
High-Fowler's position with feet dangling is the priority independent nursing intervention for acute pulmonary edema. It simultaneously maximizes lung expansion by allowing full diaphragmatic excursion and reduces preload by promoting venous pooling in the dependent lower extremities — directly targeting the underlying pathophysiology. Administering an oral beta-blocker (B) is dangerous in the setting of acute decompensated heart failure; negative inotropic effects could worsen cardiac output. Vigorous chest physiotherapy (C) is inappropriate and potentially harmful during acute respiratory distress. Placing the client supine or lateral (D) would worsen venous return and further compromise the failing ventricle.
The PHCP prescribes a STAT dose of IV furosemide. Which action is a priority for the nurse after administering the medication?
Reinforce teaching about a low-sodium diet.
Measure the client's weight daily at the same time.
Document the client's peripheral edema level.
Monitor the client's hourly urine output and SpO2.
Explanation
After administering a STAT dose of IV furosemide for acute pulmonary edema, the immediate priority is evaluating treatment effectiveness. Hourly urine output confirms the diuretic is working (fluid is being removed from the vascular space), while SpO2 monitoring confirms the primary clinical goal — improved gas exchange — is being met. Daily weight (A) is an important ongoing monitoring tool for heart failure but is not an immediate post-medication action. Diet teaching (C) is appropriate but is not a priority during an acute emergency. Documenting edema level (D) is relevant but reflects a chronic peripheral finding rather than the acute pulmonary emergency being treated.
Which action should the nurse take first?
Check the ventilator tubing for any disconnections or leaks.
Silence the alarm and wait to see if it clears on its own.
Increase the oxygen concentration setting on the ventilator.
Assess the client's airway for secretions and need for suctioning.
Explanation
A high-pressure alarm indicates the ventilator is encountering increased resistance when delivering a breath to the client. The most common causes are secretion accumulation, the client biting the tube, bronchospasm, or the client breathing against the ventilator. Assessing the client's airway and suctioning as needed directly addresses the most frequent cause and prioritizes patient safety over equipment inspection. Choice A (checking for disconnections) describes the correct response to a low-pressure alarm, which indicates a loss of circuit integrity; it is not the priority action for a high-pressure alarm. Increasing oxygen (C) does not address the source of the resistance. Silencing the alarm without investigation (D) is a serious safety violation.
Which action should the nurse take immediately?
Place the client in a supine position to open the airway.
Cover the stoma with an occlusive dressing and call for help.
Use a manual resuscitation bag to provide breaths over the stoma.
Attempt to reinsert the tracheostomy tube using a spare obturator.
Explanation
For a client with an established, mature tracheostomy stoma (a tract that has been in place for several weeks), the immediate priority when the tube is accidentally dislodged is to reinsert the tracheostomy tube using the obturator. The tract is well-formed and will remain patent long enough to allow reinsertion, which directly restores a secure airway. This is appropriate within LPN/VN scope for an established stoma per most facility protocols. Covering the stoma with an occlusive dressing (A) is appropriate only for a laryngectomy client where oral/nasal ventilation is no longer possible — it would obstruct this client's only functional airway. Supine positioning (B) does not address the dislodged tube and delays definitive airway management. BVM over the stoma (C) is a correct rescue action if reinsertion is unsuccessful, but reinsertion is the first-line response for an established stoma.
The nurse should recognize that the client's confusion is most likely a clinical sign of:
Early onset of age-related dementia.
Dehydration from decreased fluid intake.
Hypoxemia and decreased oxygen delivery to the brain.
An adverse reaction to an antiviral medication.
Explanation
In older adults, altered mental status — including new-onset confusion — is frequently the earliest and most prominent clinical sign of hypoxemia. The brain is highly sensitive to oxygen deprivation, and as SpO2 drops, cerebral oxygenation decreases, producing confusion before other classic respiratory symptoms become apparent. The concurrent drop in SpO2 from 96% to 90% directly supports this explanation. Age-related dementia (A) is a chronic, progressive condition and would not present as acute confusion over one hour. An adverse medication reaction (C) is possible but not supported without additional evidence; the SpO2 change provides a more compelling clinical explanation. Dehydration (D) could contribute to confusion but does not explain the concurrent SpO2 decline.