Recognition Of Potential Complications

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NCLEX-PN › Recognition Of Potential Complications

Questions 1 - 10
1

A 63-year-old client is 4 hours post-operative after a right hip replacement. The nurse notes that the surgical dressing is saturated and there is pooling of blood under the client. Vital signs: T 36.5°C (97.7°F), HR 118/min, RR 22/min, BP 88/54 mm Hg, SpO2 95% on room air. Hematocrit is 26% (normal 36%–46%). What complication is the client MOST at risk for?

Hemorrhage leading to hypovolemic shock

Urinary retention related to anesthesia

Atelectasis due to shallow breathing

Constipation related to opioid use

Explanation

This question tests recognition of potential complications in a post-operative client after hip replacement. Key symptoms include saturated dressing, blood pooling, tachycardia, hypotension, and low hematocrit, indicating blood loss. Hemorrhage leading to hypovolemic shock (A) accurately reflects the risk from excessive bleeding post-surgery. Urinary retention (B), constipation (C), and atelectasis (D) are possible but not supported by symptoms. Early recognition of bleeding and vital instability prevents shock. Prioritizing transfusion and surgical consultation is essential. A transferable strategy is to inspect dressings and monitor hematocrit in orthopedic post-op clients.

2

A 66-year-old client is 6 hours post-operative after an open cholecystectomy. The client reports increasing abdominal pain and feels "lightheaded." Vital signs: T 36.8°C (98.2°F), HR 122/min, RR 22/min, BP 92/58 mm Hg, SpO2 96% on room air. Hemoglobin is 8.9 g/dL (normal 12–16). Which finding indicates a potential complication?

Incisional discomfort rated 6/10 with movement

Temperature 36.8°C (98.2°F) with dry oral mucosa

No bowel sounds heard in all four quadrants at 6 hours post-op

Blood pressure 92/58 mm Hg with tachycardia and a decreasing hemoglobin level

Explanation

This question tests recognition of potential complications in a post-operative client after cholecystectomy. Key symptoms include increasing abdominal pain, lightheadedness, tachycardia, hypotension, and decreasing hemoglobin, signaling instability. Blood pressure 92/58 mm Hg with tachycardia and decreasing hemoglobin (B) accurately reflects hemorrhage, a critical post-surgical complication needing immediate attention. Incisional discomfort (A) is expected; absent bowel sounds (C) are normal early post-op; low temperature with dry mucosa (D) may indicate dehydration but not urgency. Early recognition of vital sign changes and lab trends prevents hypovolemic shock. Prioritizing hemodynamic stability guides interventions like fluid resuscitation. A transferable strategy is to monitor post-operative vital signs and hemoglobin levels hourly initially to identify bleeding complications promptly.

3

A 50-year-old client is receiving IV potassium chloride added to maintenance fluids through a peripheral IV in the left forearm. The client reports burning pain at the site, and the nurse observes blanching and swelling around the catheter. Vital signs: T 36.9°C (98.4°F), HR 92/min, RR 18/min, BP 128/76 mm Hg. Which finding indicates a potential complication?

Blood pressure 128/76 mm Hg

Swelling and blanching at the IV site with burning pain

Heart rate 92/min after ambulating to the bathroom

Warm, dry skin after receiving fluids

Explanation

This question tests recognition of potential complications in a client receiving IV potassium. Key symptoms include burning pain, blanching, and swelling at the site, suggesting irritant effects. Swelling and blanching at the IV site with burning pain (A) accurately reflects infiltration or extravasation, risking tissue necrosis. Elevated heart rate post-ambulation (B) is expected; stable blood pressure (C) is normal; warm skin (D) indicates hydration. Early recognition prevents compartment syndrome. Decision-making involves stopping infusion and applying compresses. A transferable strategy is to dilute irritants and monitor sites closely during electrolyte infusions.

4

A 28-year-old client with type 1 diabetes received rapid-acting insulin and then began vomiting with inability to keep food down. The client is now breathing rapidly and reports abdominal pain. Vital signs: T 37.8°C (100.0°F), HR 120/min, RR 28/min, BP 100/64 mm Hg. Finger-stick glucose is 356 mg/dL (normal fasting 70–99) and urine ketones are positive. What complication is the client MOST at risk for?

Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion

Pulmonary edema from fluid overload

Hypoglycemia from delayed meal

Diabetic ketoacidosis with metabolic acidosis

Explanation

This question tests recognition of potential complications in a client with type 1 diabetes after insulin and vomiting. Key symptoms include rapid breathing, abdominal pain, hyperglycemia, and positive ketones, signaling acidosis. Diabetic ketoacidosis with metabolic acidosis (A) accurately reflects the risk from insulin deficiency and ketosis. Hypoglycemia (B) involves low glucose; SIADH (C) causes hyponatremia; pulmonary edema (D) lacks fluid overload signs. Early recognition of Kussmaul breathing and ketones prevents coma. Decision-making includes insulin and fluids. A transferable strategy is to test for ketones in diabetic clients with nausea and hyperglycemia.

5

A 79-year-old client with a history of stroke and dysphagia is being fed a mechanical soft diet. The client develops a wet-sounding cough after meals and has coarse crackles in the right lower lung. Vital signs: T 101.2°F (38.4°C), HR 96/min, BP 124/68 mm Hg, RR 22/min, SpO2 91% on room air; white blood cell count 12,900/mm³ (normal 4,500–11,000). What complication is the client MOST at risk for?

Pulmonary edema from heart failure exacerbation

Atelectasis from shallow breathing only

Aspiration pneumonia

Urinary tract infection from dehydration

Explanation

This question tests recognition of potential complications in clients with dysphagia and impaired swallowing. The key symptoms indicating risk are wet cough after meals, coarse crackles in right lower lung, fever (101.2°F), and elevated WBC count (12,900/mm³), which strongly suggest aspiration of food/liquids into the lungs. Option A correctly identifies aspiration pneumonia as the complication, evidenced by the temporal relationship between eating and respiratory symptoms plus signs of infection. Option B (pulmonary edema) would present with bilateral crackles and cardiac symptoms, option C (UTI) doesn't explain the respiratory findings, and option D (atelectasis alone) wouldn't cause fever and leukocytosis. The principle for early recognition is that post-meal coughing with unilateral lung findings indicates aspiration before pneumonia fully develops. A transferable monitoring strategy is to observe clients with dysphagia during and after meals for coughing, voice changes, or respiratory distress that suggest aspiration.

6

A 66-year-old client is taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation. The client reports dark, tarry stools and bleeding gums when brushing teeth. Vital signs: T 98.7°F (37.1°C), HR 106/min, BP 102/64 mm Hg, RR 18/min, SpO2 98% on room air; international normalized ratio (INR) 5.2 (therapeutic 2.0–3.0). Which finding indicates a potential complication?

INR 5.2 with melena and gum bleeding

SpO2 98% on room air

History of atrial fibrillation

Temperature 98.7°F (37.1°C)

Explanation

This question tests recognition of potential complications related to anticoagulation therapy. The key symptoms indicating risk are INR 5.2 (therapeutic range 2.0-3.0), melena (dark tarry stools indicating GI bleeding), and gum bleeding, which together indicate warfarin toxicity with active bleeding. Option A correctly identifies the supratherapeutic INR with bleeding manifestations as the complication requiring immediate vitamin K administration and possible blood products. Option B (normal oxygen saturation), option C (normal temperature), and option D (history of atrial fibrillation) are expected findings that don't indicate complications. The principle for early recognition is that INR above therapeutic range with any bleeding symptoms indicates anticoagulation-related hemorrhage requiring reversal. A transferable monitoring strategy is to correlate INR values with clinical bleeding signs, as even minor bleeding with elevated INR can progress to major hemorrhage.

7

A 62-year-old client with type 2 diabetes takes insulin glargine nightly and insulin lispro with meals. The client received lispro but then ate only a few bites of lunch and now reports shakiness and sweating. Vital signs: T 98.2°F (36.8°C), HR 112/min, BP 132/78 mm Hg, RR 20/min, SpO2 98% on room air; finger-stick glucose 54 mg/dL (normal fasting 70–100). The nurse should monitor for which complication?

Hypoglycemia leading to seizure or loss of consciousness

Chronic diabetic neuropathy

Diabetic ketoacidosis

Hyperglycemia causing dehydration and polyuria

Explanation

This question tests recognition of potential complications related to insulin therapy and diabetes management. The key symptoms indicating risk are shakiness, sweating, tachycardia (HR 112/min), and critically low blood glucose (54 mg/dL) after taking rapid-acting insulin without adequate food intake. Option B correctly identifies hypoglycemia leading to seizure or loss of consciousness as the immediate risk, as glucose below 70 mg/dL can rapidly progress to neuroglycopenic symptoms. Option A (diabetic ketoacidosis) occurs with hyperglycemia not hypoglycemia, option C (hyperglycemia) contradicts the low glucose reading, and option D (chronic neuropathy) is a long-term complication unrelated to acute symptoms. The principle for early recognition is that symptomatic hypoglycemia with glucose below 70 mg/dL requires immediate treatment to prevent neurological complications. A transferable monitoring strategy is to assess for both autonomic symptoms (shakiness, sweating, tachycardia) and glucose levels when clients report changes after insulin administration.

8

An 82-year-old client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is admitted from an assisted living facility for weakness and decreased appetite. The client has a new cough and is more confused than baseline. Vital signs: T 100.9°F (38.3°C), HR 102/min, BP 130/70 mm Hg, RR 24/min, SpO2 90% on room air; white blood cell count 13,800/mm³ (normal 4,500–11,000). Which symptom suggests an emerging complication?

Blood pressure 130/70 mm Hg

New confusion with fever and decreased oxygen saturation

Chronic morning cough with clear sputum

Heart rate 102/min after ambulation to the bathroom

Explanation

This question tests recognition of potential complications in elderly clients with chronic lung disease. The key symptoms indicating risk are new confusion, fever (100.9°F), decreased oxygen saturation (90%), tachypnea (RR 24/min), and elevated WBC count (13,800/mm³), which suggest acute respiratory infection. Option A correctly identifies the combination of new confusion with fever and decreased oxygen saturation as indicators of pneumonia, a serious complication in COPD patients requiring prompt antibiotic therapy. Option B (chronic morning cough) represents baseline COPD symptoms, option C (normal blood pressure) is not concerning, and option D (mild tachycardia with activity) is expected. The principle for early recognition is that mental status changes with fever and hypoxemia indicate respiratory infection before severe respiratory failure develops. A transferable monitoring strategy is to compare current symptoms to baseline function, as subtle changes like confusion often precede obvious respiratory distress in elderly clients.

9

A 54-year-old client is receiving a continuous heparin infusion for treatment of a deep vein thrombosis. The client reports a new headache and the nurse notes increasing bruising at venipuncture sites. Vital signs: T 98.4°F (36.9°C), HR 98/min, BP 150/92 mm Hg, RR 16/min, SpO2 97% on room air; activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) 98 seconds (therapeutic 60–80). The nurse should monitor for which complication?

Pulmonary infection related to immobility

Heparin-induced bleeding, including possible intracranial hemorrhage

Hypoglycemia related to decreased oral intake

Recurrent deep vein thrombosis due to underdosing

Explanation

This question tests recognition of potential complications during heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. The key symptoms indicating risk are elevated aPTT (98 seconds, therapeutic 60-80), new headache, increasing bruising at venipuncture sites, and elevated blood pressure, which suggest heparin overdose with bleeding risk. Option A correctly identifies heparin-induced bleeding including possible intracranial hemorrhage as the complication, as headache with hypertension and supratherapeutic aPTT raises concern for cerebral bleeding. Option B (recurrent DVT) would occur with subtherapeutic levels, option C (pulmonary infection) lacks supporting symptoms, and option D (hypoglycemia) is unrelated to heparin therapy. The principle for early recognition is that neurological symptoms with laboratory evidence of over-anticoagulation indicate potential intracranial bleeding before catastrophic hemorrhage. A transferable monitoring strategy is to assess for both obvious bleeding (bruising) and subtle signs (headache, mental status changes) when aPTT exceeds therapeutic range.

10

A 58-year-old client with type 1 diabetes has had nausea and increased thirst for 1 day and missed two doses of insulin due to vomiting. The client has deep, rapid respirations and fruity breath odor. Vital signs: T 99.0°F (37.2°C), HR 118/min, BP 96/58 mm Hg, RR 28/min, SpO2 97% on room air; glucose 486 mg/dL (normal fasting 70–100), serum bicarbonate 14 mEq/L (normal 22–28). What complication is the client MOST at risk for?

Orthostatic hypotension due to dehydration only

Diabetic ketoacidosis with metabolic acidosis

Hypoglycemia related to excess insulin dosing

Allergic reaction to insulin causing urticaria

Explanation

This question tests recognition of potential complications in type 1 diabetes with missed insulin doses. The key symptoms indicating risk are hyperglycemia (486 mg/dL), Kussmaul respirations (deep, rapid breathing), fruity breath odor, low bicarbonate (14 mEq/L), and hypotension, which are pathognomonic for diabetic ketoacidosis. Option A correctly identifies DKA with metabolic acidosis as the complication, evidenced by the classic triad of hyperglycemia, ketosis (fruity breath), and acidosis (low bicarbonate). Option B (hypoglycemia) contradicts the elevated glucose, option C (allergic reaction) would present with skin manifestations, and option D (orthostatic hypotension alone) doesn't explain the metabolic derangements. The principle for early recognition is that hyperglycemia with acidosis and ketosis indicates DKA requiring immediate insulin and fluid resuscitation. A transferable monitoring strategy is to assess for the DKA triad (hyperglycemia, ketosis, acidosis) in any type 1 diabetic with illness or missed insulin doses.

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