Adverse Effects And Allergic Reactions

Help Questions

NCLEX-PN › Adverse Effects And Allergic Reactions

Questions 1 - 10
1

A 55-year-old male on a medical-surgical unit received his first dose of lisinopril by mouth for hypertension 2 hours ago. He now has swelling of the lips and tongue, hoarse voice, and reports “tightness” in his throat; vital signs are blood pressure 104/68 mm Hg, heart rate 110/min, respiratory rate 24/min, oxygen saturation 92% on room air. The nurse should IMMEDIATELY report which finding to the registered nurse?

Mild dry cough with clear lung sounds

Blood pressure of 104/68 mm Hg after the first dose

Swelling of the lips and tongue with hoarseness

Heart rate of 110/min after walking to the bathroom

Explanation

This question tests recognition of angioedema as a life-threatening adverse effect of ACE inhibitors and the need for immediate intervention. The client is experiencing classic signs of angioedema including swelling of the lips and tongue with hoarseness, which can rapidly progress to airway obstruction. Swelling of the lips and tongue with hoarseness (B) represents the most critical finding that requires immediate reporting as it indicates potential airway compromise. A mild dry cough (A) is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors that doesn't require immediate intervention. Blood pressure of 104/68 (C) after the first dose shows the medication is working but isn't dangerously low. Tachycardia after activity (D) is an expected physiological response. The principle of prioritization is that airway threats always take precedence over other concerns. A transferable strategy is to recognize that ACE inhibitor-induced angioedema can occur even after the first dose and requires immediate discontinuation of the medication and emergency treatment.

2

A 67-year-old female in a long-term care facility started trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole by mouth yesterday for a urinary tract infection; history includes sulfonamide allergy (hives). Today she reports itching and has raised, red wheals on her chest and arms; vital signs are temperature 98.6°F (37°C), heart rate 96/min, blood pressure 128/76 mm Hg, respiratory rate 18/min, oxygen saturation 97% on room air. Which action is the PRIORITY for the nurse?

Document the findings and reassess the skin in 1 hour

Request an order from the provider for a different antibiotic

Hold the medication and notify the registered nurse immediately

Administer the next dose with food to reduce side effects

Explanation

This question tests recognition of allergic reactions to medications and appropriate nursing response when a contraindicated drug has been administered. The client has a documented sulfonamide allergy and is now experiencing urticaria (hives) after receiving trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, which contains a sulfonamide component. Holding the medication and notifying the registered nurse immediately (A) is the priority action to prevent progression to a more severe allergic reaction. Documenting and reassessing in 1 hour (B) delays necessary intervention when an allergic reaction is occurring. Administering the next dose with food (C) is dangerous as it continues exposure to the allergen. Requesting a different antibiotic (D) is appropriate but not the immediate priority when an active allergic reaction is present. The principle of prioritization in adverse reactions is to stop the offending agent immediately and seek appropriate help. A transferable strategy is to always verify allergies before administration and recognize that any new symptoms after starting a medication could indicate an adverse reaction requiring immediate action.

3

A 60-year-old female in a primary care clinic is starting nitrofurantoin by mouth for an uncomplicated urinary tract infection. She has chronic kidney disease; laboratory results show creatinine 2.3 mg/dL. Which symptom should the nurse instruct the client to report IMMEDIATELY as a possible serious adverse effect?

New shortness of breath or persistent cough

Mild loss of appetite for 1 day

Urine turning a darker yellow color

Headache relieved by rest

Explanation

This question tests recognition of pulmonary toxicity as a serious adverse effect of nitrofurantoin, especially in clients with renal impairment. The client's elevated creatinine (2.3 mg/dL) indicates significant kidney disease, which increases the risk of nitrofurantoin accumulation and toxicity. New shortness of breath or persistent cough (A) could indicate pulmonary fibrosis or pneumonitis, serious adverse effects of nitrofurantoin requiring immediate medical attention. Darker yellow urine (B) is an expected harmless effect of nitrofurantoin. Mild loss of appetite (C) is a minor side effect not requiring immediate reporting. Headache relieved by rest (D) is not concerning if self-limiting. The principle of adverse effect monitoring is that respiratory symptoms with nitrofurantoin require immediate evaluation due to potential for irreversible lung damage. A transferable strategy is to recognize that clients with renal impairment are at higher risk for drug toxicity and require closer monitoring for serious adverse effects.

4

A 23-year-old female in an urgent care clinic is prescribed amoxicillin by mouth for sinusitis. Her history includes anaphylaxis to penicillin as a child. Which medication order should the nurse QUESTION based on the client’s history?

Amoxicillin 500 mg by mouth three times daily

Increase oral fluids as tolerated

Acetaminophen 650 mg by mouth every 6 hours as needed for pain

Normal saline nasal spray as needed for congestion

Explanation

This question tests recognition of cross-reactivity between penicillin and other beta-lactam antibiotics requiring medication reconciliation. The client has a history of anaphylaxis to penicillin, and amoxicillin is a penicillin-type antibiotic with high cross-reactivity risk. Questioning the amoxicillin order (A) is appropriate because clients with penicillin anaphylaxis should not receive penicillin derivatives. Acetaminophen (B) is safe and has no cross-reactivity with penicillin. Normal saline nasal spray (C) is a safe symptomatic treatment. Increasing oral fluids (D) is a supportive measure with no allergy concerns. The principle of medication safety is that documented severe allergies must be respected, and cross-reactive medications avoided. A transferable strategy is to recognize that penicillin allergy extends to all penicillin derivatives (amoxicillin, ampicillin) and requires careful consideration of alternative antibiotics.

5

An LPN/LVN on a telemetry unit is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse see FIRST?

  1. A 64-year-old male who received intravenous ceftriaxone 10 minutes ago and now has wheezing, facial flushing, and oxygen saturation 89% on room air.

  2. A 41-year-old female taking metformin who reports mild nausea after breakfast; blood glucose is 122 mg/dL.

  3. A 70-year-old male taking furosemide who reports increased urination; potassium is 3.6 mEq/L.

  4. A 58-year-old female taking diphenhydramine who is drowsy but arousable; respiratory rate is 14/min.

Client 2 with mild nausea after taking metformin

Client 3 with increased urination after taking furosemide

Client 4 who is drowsy after taking diphenhydramine

Client 1 with wheezing and oxygen saturation 89% after ceftriaxone

Explanation

This question tests prioritization of clients experiencing medication-related adverse effects using the ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation) framework. Client 1 is experiencing signs of anaphylaxis (wheezing, facial flushing) with hypoxemia (oxygen saturation 89%) after receiving ceftriaxone, indicating respiratory compromise. Client 1 with wheezing and low oxygen saturation (C) requires immediate intervention due to airway/breathing compromise. Client 2's mild nausea (A) is a common side effect of metformin that doesn't require urgent intervention. Client 4's drowsiness (B) is an expected effect of diphenhydramine with stable respirations. Client 3's increased urination (D) is the expected therapeutic effect of furosemide with acceptable potassium level. The principle of prioritization is that respiratory compromise always takes precedence over expected side effects or therapeutic responses. A transferable strategy is to use ABC prioritization and recognize that beta-lactam antibiotics like ceftriaxone can cause immediate hypersensitivity reactions requiring emergency intervention.

6

A 34-year-old female in an emergency department is treated for pneumonia and has a documented allergy to azithromycin (hives). The medication administration record shows an order for azithromycin 500 mg by mouth now. Which action is the PRIORITY for the nurse?

Ask the client if she is willing to take the medication anyway

Hold the dose and notify the registered nurse of the allergy

Give the medication with food to prevent stomach upset

Administer the medication and monitor for rash

Explanation

This question tests recognition of medication allergy documentation and the nurse's responsibility to prevent allergic reactions. The client has a documented allergy to azithromycin with a previous reaction of hives, and the same medication has been ordered. Holding the dose and notifying the registered nurse (B) is the priority to prevent re-exposure to a known allergen that previously caused an allergic reaction. Administering the medication (A) violates the principle of allergy avoidance and could cause a severe reaction. Asking if the client is willing to take it (C) is inappropriate as it puts the client at risk. Giving with food (D) doesn't prevent allergic reactions. The principle of medication safety is that documented allergies must be strictly observed, and the nurse has a duty to advocate for safe medication administration. A transferable strategy is to always verify allergies before administration and recognize that the nurse must refuse to give medications to which the client has documented allergies.

7

A 72-year-old male in a skilled nursing facility has chronic atrial fibrillation and takes warfarin. He was started on trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole by mouth yesterday for cellulitis. Today he has bleeding gums when brushing and dark, tarry stools; vital signs are blood pressure 112/70 mm Hg, heart rate 98/min. Laboratory results show international normalized ratio (INR) 5.2. What is the PRIORITY action for the nurse?

Hold warfarin and notify the registered nurse immediately

Teach the client to use a soft toothbrush and electric razor

Recheck the INR at the next scheduled lab draw

Administer the next dose of warfarin with the evening meal

Explanation

This question tests recognition of a serious drug interaction between warfarin and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole resulting in excessive anticoagulation. The client's INR of 5.2 is critically elevated (therapeutic range typically 2-3), and he's showing signs of bleeding including bleeding gums and melena (dark, tarry stools). Holding warfarin and notifying the registered nurse immediately (B) is the priority to prevent further bleeding complications. Teaching about bleeding precautions (A) is important but not the immediate priority when active bleeding is occurring. Administering the next dose (C) would worsen the bleeding risk. Rechecking the INR later (D) delays necessary intervention for a critical value. The principle of prioritization is that active bleeding with supratherapeutic anticoagulation requires immediate intervention. A transferable strategy is to recognize that antibiotics, especially sulfonamides, can potentiate warfarin's effects and require close INR monitoring.

8

A 48-year-old male in an outpatient infusion center is receiving intravenous vancomycin for a skin infection. Fifteen minutes into the infusion he develops flushing of the face and neck and reports itching; vital signs are temperature 98.4°F (36.9°C), heart rate 102/min, blood pressure 118/74 mm Hg, respiratory rate 18/min, oxygen saturation 98% on room air. What is the PRIORITY action for the nurse?

Administer intramuscular epinephrine immediately

Obtain a blood culture from the IV site

Continue the infusion and reassure the client this is expected

Slow the infusion rate and notify the registered nurse

Explanation

This question tests recognition of vancomycin infusion reaction (Red Man Syndrome) and appropriate nursing intervention. The client is experiencing classic symptoms including flushing of face and neck with itching, but vital signs remain stable without respiratory compromise. Slowing the infusion rate and notifying the registered nurse (B) is the appropriate first action for this histamine-mediated reaction, which usually resolves with slower infusion. Continuing the infusion at the same rate (A) could worsen symptoms. Administering epinephrine (C) is not indicated as this isn't anaphylaxis - there's no respiratory distress or hypotension. Obtaining blood cultures (D) is unrelated to the infusion reaction. The principle of managing infusion reactions is to slow or stop the infusion while monitoring for progression to more severe symptoms. A transferable strategy is to recognize that vancomycin infusion reactions are rate-related and can usually be managed by slowing the infusion rate and premedicating with antihistamines for future doses.

9

A 76-year-old female in a long-term care facility takes digoxin for heart failure. This morning she reports nausea, poor appetite, and seeing “yellow halos” around lights; apical pulse is 52/min, blood pressure 118/64 mm Hg. Laboratory results show digoxin level 2.6 ng/mL and potassium 3.1 mEq/L. The nurse should IMMEDIATELY report which finding to the registered nurse?

Blood pressure 118/64 mm Hg

Client reports poor appetite at breakfast

Client is 76 years old and takes digoxin daily

Digoxin level 2.6 ng/mL with apical pulse 52/min

Explanation

This question tests recognition of digoxin toxicity and the importance of therapeutic drug monitoring. The client is experiencing classic signs of digoxin toxicity including nausea, anorexia, visual disturbances (yellow halos), and bradycardia with a toxic digoxin level and hypokalemia that potentiates toxicity. The digoxin level of 2.6 ng/mL with bradycardia (B) is the most critical finding as it confirms digoxin toxicity (therapeutic range 0.5-2.0 ng/mL) with cardiac effects. Blood pressure (A) is within acceptable limits. Poor appetite (C) alone could have many causes. The client's age and medication regimen (D) are risk factors but not acute findings. The principle of drug toxicity management is that supratherapeutic levels with symptoms require immediate intervention to prevent serious cardiac arrhythmias. A transferable strategy is to recognize that digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index, and toxicity risk increases with hypokalemia, requiring careful monitoring of both drug levels and electrolytes.

10

A 58-year-old male on a medical unit is newly prescribed insulin lispro subcutaneously before meals. Thirty minutes after receiving the first dose, he is diaphoretic, shaky, and confused; vital signs are heart rate 112/min, blood pressure 136/82 mm Hg, respiratory rate 20/min. Bedside blood glucose is 48 mg/dL. What is the PRIORITY action for the nurse?

Give 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate and notify the registered nurse

Call the provider to request a change to long-acting insulin

Recheck the blood glucose in 30 minutes to confirm the result

Hold the next scheduled dose of insulin lispro

Explanation

This question tests recognition and management of insulin-induced hypoglycemia requiring immediate intervention. The client is experiencing classic signs of hypoglycemia (diaphoresis, shakiness, confusion, tachycardia) with a critically low blood glucose of 48 mg/dL after rapid-acting insulin administration. Giving 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate and notifying the registered nurse (B) follows the standard hypoglycemia protocol to quickly raise blood glucose and prevent progression to severe hypoglycemia. Rechecking in 30 minutes (A) delays necessary treatment for symptomatic hypoglycemia. Holding the next dose (C) addresses future doses but not the current emergency. Calling for a medication change (D) is not the immediate priority during acute hypoglycemia. The principle of hypoglycemia management is the 15-15 rule: give 15 grams of carbohydrate, recheck in 15 minutes, and repeat if needed. A transferable strategy is to recognize that rapid-acting insulin peaks quickly (within 1-2 hours) and requires careful timing with meals to prevent hypoglycemia.