ICU To Ward Transition
Help Questions
USMLE Step 3 › ICU To Ward Transition
Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate action?
Administer a dose of intravenous lorazepam.
Initiate haloperidol for recurrent ICU delirium.
Obtain blood cultures and start broad-spectrum antibiotics.
Order a CT angiogram of the chest to rule out pulmonary embolism.
Explanation
The patient's presentation of agitation, tremulousness, diaphoresis, hypertension, and tachycardia shortly after discontinuing a continuous benzodiazepine infusion is highly suggestive of benzodiazepine withdrawal. The most appropriate immediate action is to treat the withdrawal with a benzodiazepine, such as lorazepam. This addresses the underlying cause of his symptoms and prevents progression to seizures or delirium tremens. While his symptoms overlap with other conditions, the specific constellation and timing make withdrawal most likely.
Which of the following interventions is most likely to improve her long-term functional outcome?
Electromyography and nerve conduction studies.
Administration of high-dose intravenous corticosteroids.
Early and structured physical and occupational therapy.
A course of intravenous immune globulin (IVIG).
Explanation
This patient's presentation is classic for critical illness polyneuromyopathy (CIP/CIM), a common complication of prolonged critical illness characterized by diffuse, symmetric weakness. The cornerstone of management for CIP/CIM is supportive care, with early and intensive rehabilitation being the most crucial intervention to improve strength and long-term functional recovery. Electromyography can confirm the diagnosis but is not a therapeutic intervention. Corticosteroids and IVIG are not indicated and may be harmful.
Which of the following pieces of information in the handoff note is most critical for preventing an adverse event in the next 24 hours?
Confirmation that beta-blocker therapy was initiated.
Results of the most recent serum potassium and creatinine levels.
The peak troponin level during the admission.
A list of all consulting services involved in the CCU.
Explanation
Patients with NSTEMI are often started on multiple new medications, including ACE inhibitors (like his home lisinopril), beta-blockers, and possibly aldosterone antagonists. These medications, combined with potential renal insults during an acute illness, can lead to hyperkalemia and acute kidney injury. Therefore, knowing the most recent potassium and creatinine levels is critical for safely continuing or titrating his medications on the ward. While the peak troponin, beta-blocker status, and consultant list are important parts of the history, the electrolyte and renal function status have the most immediate implication for medication safety and preventing an imminent adverse event.
What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic step?
Obtain a stat serum creatinine.
Administer a 500 mL normal saline bolus.
Insert a straight catheter for immediate drainage.
Perform a portable bladder ultrasound.
Explanation
The patient's history of BPH, recent Foley catheterization, and current symptoms strongly suggest acute urinary retention. The most appropriate initial step is to confirm the diagnosis non-invasively with a portable bladder ultrasound (bladder scan). This will quantify the amount of urine in the bladder and confirm the diagnosis before proceeding with catheterization. Inserting a catheter (straight or indwelling) is a therapeutic intervention that should follow diagnosis. Obtaining a creatinine level is important to assess for post-renal injury but does not confirm the immediate problem. Administering fluids would worsen the retention and discomfort.
In addition to continued glucose monitoring, which of the following is the most appropriate adjustment to her insulin regimen to prevent recurrence?
Increase her bedtime snack caloric content.
Discontinue the insulin glargine entirely.
Hold the next morning's dose of pre-meal insulin lispro.
Decrease the evening insulin glargine dose.
Explanation
Nocturnal hypoglycemia in a patient on a basal-bolus insulin regimen is most often caused by an excessive dose of the long-acting (basal) insulin, in this case, insulin glargine. The most appropriate management is to reduce the dose of the glargine to prevent recurrence. Discontinuing it entirely would lead to hyperglycemia. Holding the morning lispro does not address the cause of the nocturnal hypoglycemia. While a larger snack might help, adjusting the insulin dose is the primary and most reliable intervention.
What is the most appropriate action by the ward physician regarding this finding?
Order an immediate PET scan to characterize the nodule during the current admission.
Defer any discussion or workup until after the patient has fully recovered from the GI bleed.
Inform the patient of the finding and ensure a clear follow-up plan is in place before discharge.
Reassure the patient that incidental findings are common and rarely significant.
Explanation
A key responsibility of the ward team during an ICU-to-ward transition is ensuring that important but non-acute issues and incidental findings are not lost to follow-up. A new 2-cm lung nodule is a potentially serious finding that requires further investigation. The most appropriate action is to communicate the finding to the patient and arrange for appropriate outpatient follow-up, typically with a repeat CT scan in a specified timeframe or a pulmonology consultation. Deferring the discussion, providing false reassurance, or ordering an advanced imaging test like a PET scan without first obtaining a diagnostic CT would be inappropriate.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step for the physician?
Immediately arrange for outpatient parenteral antibiotic therapy (OPAT) to facilitate his request.
Notify hospital security and social work to place a psychiatric hold.
Assess the patient's understanding of the risks of leaving and his decision-making capacity.
Explain that his insurance will likely refuse to pay for his hospitalization if he leaves AMA.
Explanation
When a patient wishes to leave AMA, the physician's first responsibility is to ensure the patient has decision-making capacity. This involves assessing their ability to understand the risks, benefits, and alternatives of treatment (including leaving) and to communicate a choice. Exploring the patient's reasons for wanting to leave can also reveal barriers to care that may be addressable. A psychiatric hold is not appropriate unless the patient is a danger to self or others due to a psychiatric condition. Arranging OPAT is a potential option, but only after capacity is confirmed and a shared decision-making process occurs. Using financial threats is coercive and unethical.
In addition to her current medical therapy, which of the following interventions initiated prior to discharge is most likely to reduce her 30-day hospital readmission rate?
Prescription for long-term oral azithromycin.
Providing an incentive spirometer and instructions for use.
Scheduling a 6-month follow-up with her pulmonologist.
Referral for pulmonary rehabilitation.
Explanation
For patients hospitalized with a COPD exacerbation, pulmonary rehabilitation is a comprehensive intervention that has been shown to improve exercise capacity, reduce symptoms of dyspnea, and significantly decrease hospital readmissions. It is a critical component of post-hospitalization care. While azithromycin has a role in select patients with frequent exacerbations, it is not a universal recommendation. A 6-month follow-up is too distant, and an incentive spirometer is generally not effective for COPD.
Which of the following orders is most important to include for this patient to prevent a common neurological complication?
Initiate scheduled lorazepam taper for alcohol withdrawal syndrome.
Continue intravenous thiamine until discharge from the hospital.
Check serum ammonia levels daily for hepatic monitoring.
Administer oral folic acid and multivitamin supplementation daily.
Explanation
Patients with alcohol use disorder are at high risk for thiamine deficiency and Wernicke encephalopathy, especially during acute illness. IV thiamine should be continued until the patient is stable and reliably taking oral nutrition, as oral absorption may be impaired during acute illness. While multivitamin supplementation is important, IV thiamine continuation takes priority for preventing Wernicke encephalopathy. Lorazepam is only indicated if withdrawal symptoms are present. Ammonia monitoring is not routinely indicated for pancreatitis without signs of hepatic encephalopathy.
What is the most important management priority for this patient on the medical ward?
Placing the patient on a strict fluid and sodium restriction.
Ordering a 12-lead ECG to monitor for QRS changes.
Administering a dose of furosemide for his edema.
Ensuring the nephrology service is aware of the patient for scheduled dialysis.
Explanation
The most critical aspect of this patient's care is ensuring he receives his life-sustaining hemodialysis on schedule. Care transitions are a high-risk time for communication failures. The ward physician must proactively communicate with the nephrology service to confirm the patient is on their schedule for his dialysis session the next day (Wednesday). Patients with ESRD are often anuric, so furosemide would be ineffective. While fluid/sodium restriction and ECG monitoring are important, they are secondary to ensuring he receives definitive treatment for his renal failure.