Hypertension And Vascular Disease
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USMLE Step 3 › Hypertension And Vascular Disease
A 58-year-old man with a 15-year history of hypertension presents for follow-up. He reports adherence to his regimen of lisinopril 40 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, and hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg daily. His blood pressure in the office is 165/98 mmHg. He has no other comorbidities. A review of his electronic health record confirms he has been adherent and on this regimen for the past six months. Laboratory studies show a serum potassium of 3.3 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to investigate the cause of his hypertension?
Measure plasma aldosterone concentration and plasma renin activity
Order a 24-hour urine collection for metanephrines
Perform an overnight low-dose dexamethasone suppression test
Order a renal artery Doppler ultrasound
Explanation
This patient has resistant hypertension, defined as uncontrolled blood pressure despite the use of three antihypertensive agents from different classes, including a diuretic. The presence of mild hypokalemia in this setting is highly suggestive of primary aldosteronism, the most common cause of secondary hypertension. Therefore, the most appropriate next step is to screen for this condition by measuring plasma aldosterone concentration and plasma renin activity. An aldosterone-to-renin ratio is then calculated to make the diagnosis.
A 66-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department with a severe headache and confusion for the past several hours. Her medical history is significant for poorly controlled hypertension. Her blood pressure is 210/125 mmHg and her heart rate is 95/min. Funduscopic examination reveals bilateral papilledema. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial therapeutic goal for this patient?
Normalize blood pressure gradually over the next 48 hours
Reduce systolic blood pressure to less than 140 mmHg within the first hour
Reduce mean arterial pressure by 10-20% in the first hour
Administer oral clonidine and transfer to an observation unit
Explanation
This patient is presenting with a hypertensive emergency, characterized by severe hypertension and evidence of end-organ damage (hypertensive encephalopathy with confusion and papilledema). The initial goal of management is to carefully lower the blood pressure to prevent further organ damage without causing cerebral hypoperfusion. The standard recommendation is to lower the mean arterial pressure (MAP) by no more than 10-20% in the first hour, and then by another 5-15% over the next 23 hours. Rapidly lowering the blood pressure to normal or near-normal levels can precipitate ischemic injury.
A 72-year-old man with a 40-pack-year smoking history and type 2 diabetes presents with a 6-month history of cramping pain in his right calf that occurs after walking two blocks and is relieved by 5 minutes of rest. His ankle-brachial index is 0.65 on the right and 0.95 on the left. He is currently taking metformin and low-dose aspirin. In addition to counseling on smoking cessation and recommending a supervised exercise program, which of the following is the most appropriate addition to his medical regimen?
Referral for prophylactic right popliteal artery angioplasty
Initiation of cilostazol for symptom improvement
Initiation of high-intensity statin therapy
Addition of clopidogrel for dual antiplatelet therapy
Explanation
This patient has symptomatic peripheral artery disease (PAD). PAD is considered a coronary artery disease risk equivalent, and patients are at very high risk for myocardial infarction, stroke, and cardiovascular death. The cornerstone of medical management is aggressive cardiovascular risk factor modification. All patients with PAD should be on high-intensity statin therapy (e.g., atorvastatin 40-80 mg or rosuvastatin 20-40 mg) regardless of their baseline LDL-cholesterol level to reduce this risk. Cilostazol is used for symptom relief of claudication but does not reduce cardiovascular events. Dual antiplatelet therapy is not routinely recommended for stable PAD. Intervention is reserved for lifestyle-limiting symptoms refractory to medical therapy or for critical limb ischemia.
A 75-year-old woman is found to have a right carotid bruit on a routine physical exam. She has no history of stroke, transient ischemic attack, or amaurosis fugax. A carotid duplex ultrasound is performed and reveals an 80% stenosis of the right internal carotid artery. She is on optimal medical therapy for hypertension and hyperlipidemia, including aspirin, lisinopril, and atorvastatin. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Add clopidogrel to her current aspirin regimen
Continue current optimal medical therapy alone
Referral for right carotid endarterectomy
Referral for right carotid artery stenting
Explanation
The management of asymptomatic carotid stenosis is controversial, and the benefit of intervention (carotid endarterectomy [CEA] or stenting) is small and diminishes with advanced age, particularly in women. The primary management strategy is optimal medical therapy, which includes antiplatelet agents (aspirin), high-intensity statins, and aggressive blood pressure control. Given her age, sex, and asymptomatic status, the risks of a perioperative stroke from CEA likely outweigh the potential benefits of stroke reduction compared to continuing medical therapy alone. Dual antiplatelet therapy is not indicated for stable, asymptomatic stenosis.
A 34-year-old woman presents with newly diagnosed hypertension. Her blood pressure is 170/105 mmHg. She has no family history of hypertension, a BMI of 22 kg/m², and does not use tobacco. On examination, a faint bruit is audible just to the right of the umbilicus. Initial laboratory studies, including serum electrolytes and creatinine, are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next diagnostic test?
Echocardiogram to assess for coarctation
CT angiography of the renal arteries
Measurement of plasma aldosterone and renin levels
24-hour urinary free cortisol measurement
Explanation
The patient's presentation of severe, new-onset hypertension at a young age, particularly in a female, along with an abdominal bruit, is highly suspicious for secondary hypertension due to renal artery stenosis caused by fibromuscular dysplasia (FMD). FMD is a non-atherosclerotic, non-inflammatory vascular disease that most commonly affects the renal and internal carotid arteries. CT angiography or MR angiography of the renal arteries is the preferred non-invasive imaging modality to visualize the characteristic 'string of beads' appearance of FMD.
A 62-year-old man with hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and stage 3 chronic kidney disease (eGFR 45 mL/min/1.73 m²) is managed with lisinopril 40 mg daily. His blood pressure is well-controlled at 125/75 mmHg. However, for the past three months, he has been bothered by a persistent, dry cough that occasionally wakes him at night. Which of the following is the most appropriate change to his medication regimen?
Discontinue lisinopril and start amlodipine
Discontinue lisinopril and start losartan
Add hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg daily
Decrease the dose of lisinopril to 20 mg daily
Explanation
The patient is experiencing a classic ACE inhibitor-induced cough. This side effect is due to the accumulation of bradykinin and is not dose-dependent. Given his comorbidities of diabetes and chronic kidney disease, continued blockade of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) is indicated for its reno- and cardioprotective benefits. The most appropriate management is to switch from an ACE inhibitor (lisinopril) to an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) like losartan. ARBs do not affect bradykinin levels and are therefore not associated with cough, while providing similar RAAS blockade benefits.
A 28-year-old man presents for a pre-employment physical. He has a blood pressure of 160/90 mmHg in his right arm. He mentions occasional headaches and notes that his legs feel fatigued more quickly than his arms during exercise. Physical examination reveals bounding radial pulses and markedly diminished and delayed femoral pulses. Which of the following findings is most likely to be present on this patient's chest radiograph?
Cardiomegaly with a 'boot-shaped' heart
Prominent pulmonary vascular markings
Notching of the inferior border of the ribs
A widened mediastinum
Explanation
The patient's presentation, including upper extremity hypertension, diminished lower extremity pulses (brachial-femoral delay), and symptoms of leg claudication, is classic for coarctation of the aorta. In this condition, chronic aortic obstruction leads to the development of collateral circulation through the intercostal and internal mammary arteries to bypass the stenosis. The enlarged, pulsatile intercostal arteries cause pressure erosion on the inferior surfaces of the ribs, leading to the characteristic finding of rib notching on chest radiography.
Based on this abstract, which of the following is the most appropriate conclusion?
The study demonstrates that Drug X is superior to placebo for preventing the composite primary endpoint.
The results are not clinically significant because the hazard ratio for MACE was not statistically significant.
Drug X should be the new standard of care for all patients with PAD to prevent heart attack and stroke.
Drug X reduces the risk of limb-related events but not cardiovascular events in patients with symptomatic PAD.
Explanation
The abstract shows that the composite primary endpoint was met (statistically significant reduction). However, when breaking down the composite endpoint, the benefit was driven entirely by a reduction in major adverse limb events (MALE), as the hazard ratio for major adverse cardiovascular events (MACE) was not statistically significant. Therefore, the most accurate conclusion is that Drug X reduces limb-related events but was not shown to reduce MACE (MI, stroke, cardiovascular death). Choice D is true, but A is more specific and accurately describes the components of the outcome. Choice B is an overstatement, and Choice C incorrectly dismisses the significant primary endpoint result.
A 29-year-old woman of East Asian descent presents with a 3-month history of fatigue, low-grade fevers, and arthralgias. She also reports pain and weakness in both arms when she blow-dries her hair or carries groceries. On examination, her blood pressure is 160/95 mmHg in the right arm but unobtainable by cuff in the left arm. Bruits are audible over both subclavian arteries. Her erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 95 mm/hr. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Polyarteritis nodosa
Giant cell arteritis
Takayasu arteritis
Fibromuscular dysplasia
Explanation
This patient's presentation is classic for Takayasu arteritis, a large-vessel vasculitis that primarily affects the aorta and its major branches. It typically occurs in women younger than 50, often of Asian descent. The clinical picture includes systemic constitutional symptoms (fever, fatigue), evidence of vascular inflammation (elevated ESR), and signs of vessel stenosis such as blood pressure discrepancies between limbs, arterial bruits, and limb claudication. Giant cell arteritis affects patients >50. FMD does not cause systemic inflammation. Polyarteritis nodosa is a medium-vessel vasculitis that typically spares the aorta.
A 55-year-old man with hypertension and a history of recurrent gouty arthritis presents for medication management. His blood pressure is 155/92 mmHg despite adherence to amlodipine 10 mg daily. He has had two gout flares in the past year while taking allopurinol. Laboratory studies show a serum uric acid of 8.9 mg/dL. Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate addition to his antihypertensive regimen?
Lisinopril
Atenolol
Hydrochlorothiazide
Losartan
Explanation
This question requires selecting an antihypertensive agent based on its effect on a comorbid condition. Among the angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs), losartan has a unique uricosuric effect, meaning it increases the urinary excretion of uric acid and can lower serum uric acid levels. This makes it a particularly good choice for patients with both hypertension and gout. In contrast, thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide are known to increase serum uric acid and can precipitate gout flares. While ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers are options for hypertension, they do not offer the specific benefit for hyperuricemia that losartan does.