Dialysis And Transplant Care
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USMLE Step 3 › Dialysis And Transplant Care
A 58-year-old man who is 6 months post-deceased donor renal transplant presents for follow-up. His medications include tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, and prednisone. His blood pressure today is 155/95 mm Hg; it was 150/92 mm Hg one month ago. He has no other medical history. His serum creatinine is stable at 1.4 mg/dL and potassium is 4.2 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial agent for managing his hypertension?
Hydrochlorothiazide
Amlodipine
Metoprolol
Lisinopril
Explanation
Post-transplant hypertension is common, often exacerbated by immunosuppressive medications, particularly calcineurin inhibitors like tacrolimus. Tacrolimus can cause afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction, leading to hypertension and a decrease in GFR. Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers, such as amlodipine, are the preferred first-line agents as they cause vasodilation of the afferent arteriole, directly counteracting this effect and potentially improving allograft blood flow. ACE inhibitors or ARBs may cause an acute rise in creatinine and hyperkalemia in this setting. Thiazide diuretics are less effective with a reduced GFR and can worsen electrolyte abnormalities associated with tacrolimus. Beta-blockers are not considered first-line agents for this condition.
A 45-year-old woman on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) for end-stage renal disease presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of diffuse abdominal pain, fever, and nausea. Her peritoneal dialysis effluent is cloudy. A sample of the effluent is sent for cell count, Gram stain, and culture. The cell count shows 450 WBC/μL with 85% neutrophils. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Initiate empiric intraperitoneal antibiotic therapy.
Perform an abdominal CT scan to evaluate for an abscess.
Administer empiric broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics.
Schedule urgent removal of the peritoneal dialysis catheter.
Explanation
This patient's presentation is classic for peritonitis, a common and serious complication of peritoneal dialysis. The diagnosis is confirmed by cloudy effluent and a fluid WBC count >100/μL with >50% neutrophils. The standard of care is to initiate empiric intraperitoneal (IP) antibiotics immediately after diagnosis. IP administration achieves high local concentrations and is more effective than intravenous (IV) administration for uncomplicated PD peritonitis. Catheter removal is reserved for severe, refractory, or fungal peritonitis. An abdominal CT scan is not necessary for the initial diagnosis if the clinical picture is clear.
A 38-year-old man who is 9 months post-kidney transplant presents with a progressive rise in his serum creatinine from a baseline of 1.5 mg/dL to 2.4 mg/dL over the past 6 weeks. He has no other symptoms. His immunosuppressive regimen is tacrolimus, mycophenolate, and prednisone. A quantitative urine PCR is positive for BK polyomavirus with a viral load of 100,000 copies/mL. A renal biopsy is pending. What is the most appropriate initial management step?
Switch from tacrolimus to sirolimus.
Reduce the dose of mycophenolate mofetil.
Increase the dose of prednisone to treat presumed rejection.
Begin treatment with intravenous cidofovir.
Explanation
This patient has BK virus-associated nephropathy (BKVAN), a significant cause of allograft dysfunction. The cornerstone of management is a reduction in overall immunosuppression to allow the host immune system to clear the virus. This is typically achieved by first reducing or discontinuing the antimetabolite agent (mycophenolate mofetil or azathioprine). Increasing immunosuppression would worsen the viral replication. Antiviral agents like cidofovir have significant toxicity and are reserved for severe cases unresponsive to immunosuppression reduction. Switching to sirolimus has been studied but is not the standard initial step.
A 55-year-old woman with end-stage renal disease due to polycystic kidney disease had a radiocephalic arteriovenous fistula (AVF) created in her left forearm 10 weeks ago. She is scheduled to begin hemodialysis next week. On examination of the fistula, there is a weak, high-pitched bruit and no palpable thrill. The fistula is small and difficult to palpate. What is the most appropriate next step in her management?
Proceed with cannulation for the first hemodialysis session.
Advise the patient to perform fistula exercises for another month.
Refer for placement of a tunneled hemodialysis catheter.
Obtain a duplex ultrasound or fistulogram of the access.
Explanation
This patient's AVF shows signs of non-maturation. A mature fistula should be easily palpable, have a continuous, low-pitched bruit, and a palpable thrill. By 8-12 weeks, the fistula should be ready for use. The physical findings suggest an outflow stenosis or other anatomical problem. The most appropriate next step is to obtain imaging, such as a duplex ultrasound or a fistulogram, to identify the underlying issue, which may be amenable to percutaneous intervention. Proceeding with cannulation is unsafe and likely to fail. Placing a catheter is premature before investigating the cause of fistula failure. Waiting longer is unlikely to result in maturation without intervention.
A 48-year-old woman is evaluated 4 months after a kidney transplant. Her immunosuppressive regimen includes tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, and a tapering dose of prednisone. She reports increased thirst and urination. Laboratory studies show a fasting blood glucose of 152 mg/dL and a hemoglobin A1c of 7.4%. She had no history of diabetes prior to her transplant. This patient's condition is most likely a side effect of which two of her medications?
Mycophenolate mofetil as a single agent
Tacrolimus and prednisone
Tacrolimus and mycophenolate mofetil
Mycophenolate mofetil and prednisone
Explanation
New-onset diabetes after transplantation (NODAT) is a common metabolic complication. The risk is significantly increased by certain immunosuppressive agents. Both glucocorticoids (prednisone) and calcineurin inhibitors (especially tacrolimus) are known to be diabetogenic. Prednisone induces insulin resistance, while tacrolimus is directly toxic to pancreatic beta cells. Mycophenolate mofetil is not significantly associated with the development of NODAT. Therefore, the combination of tacrolimus and prednisone is the most likely cause of this patient's hyperglycemia.
A 72-year-old man with newly diagnosed end-stage renal disease requires initiation of dialysis. He has a history of multiple complex abdominal surgeries for Crohn's disease, resulting in adhesions. He also has severe diabetic retinopathy causing near-blindness and lives with his daughter who works full-time. He expresses a strong desire for a therapy that minimizes disruption to his daily life. Which dialysis modality is most appropriate for this patient?
Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)
In-center hemodialysis
Home hemodialysis
Automated peritoneal dialysis (APD)
Explanation
This patient has multiple contraindications to home-based dialysis modalities. His extensive abdominal surgical history makes peritoneal dialysis (both CAPD and APD) high-risk due to potential adhesions affecting catheter function and fluid distribution. His near-blindness and lack of a full-time caregiver make both home hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis unsafe and impractical, as these require significant patient or caregiver ability for sterile technique and machine operation. Therefore, in-center hemodialysis, where treatment is administered by trained medical staff, is the safest and most appropriate option.
A 52-year-old man who is 7 months post-renal transplant presents with a 2-week history of low-grade fever, malaise, non-productive cough, and progressive dyspnea. His medications include tacrolimus, mycophenolate, and prednisone. He has been compliant with his trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole prophylaxis. A chest X-ray reveals diffuse bilateral interstitial infiltrates. Bronchoalveolar lavage is performed. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Pneumocystis jirovecii
BK polyomavirus
Explanation
The timing of infection post-transplant is critical for diagnosis. The period from 1 to 12 months is the highest risk for opportunistic infections, particularly CMV. This patient's subacute presentation with pneumonitis (fever, cough, dyspnea) and diffuse interstitial infiltrates is classic for CMV infection. While PJP can present similarly, it is less likely given that the patient is compliant with prophylaxis. S. pneumoniae typically causes an acute, lobar pneumonia. BK virus primarily causes nephropathy, not pneumonitis.
A 68-year-old woman on maintenance hemodialysis (Monday-Wednesday-Friday) is admitted with cellulitis and requires intravenous vancomycin. Her dry weight is 70 kg. The hospital protocol suggests a loading dose of 20 mg/kg. After the loading dose is given, what is the most appropriate strategy for maintenance dosing?
Administer a fixed dose of 500 mg intravenously every 12 hours.
Administer 500 mg intravenously after each hemodialysis session.
Administer a fixed dose of 1 gram intravenously every 24 hours.
Administer 1 gram intravenously every 48 hours, regardless of dialysis schedule.
Explanation
Vancomycin is a large molecule that is significantly cleared by high-flux hemodialysis. Dosing must be adjusted for renal failure and the dialysis schedule. The standard approach is to give a loading dose, followed by smaller maintenance doses administered after each dialysis session to replace the drug that was removed. Dosing is then guided by pre-dialysis trough levels. Fixed daily or every-48-hour dosing is inappropriate as it does not account for clearance during dialysis and can lead to either toxic or sub-therapeutic levels. A maintenance dose of 500-750 mg post-dialysis is a common starting point.
A 70-year-old man is two hours into his outpatient hemodialysis session. The nurse reports that he is complaining of dizziness and nausea. His blood pressure has dropped from 150/85 mm Hg to 88/52 mm Hg. The ultrafiltration goal for the session is 3.5 liters. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial intervention?
Administer an intravenous bolus of 25% albumin.
Decrease the ultrafiltration rate and administer a bolus of normal saline.
Stop the hemodialysis session and send the patient to the emergency department.
Administer an oral dose of midodrine and continue the session as planned.
Explanation
Intradialytic hypotension is a common complication of hemodialysis, primarily caused by rapid fluid removal exceeding the plasma refilling rate. The immediate management involves two key steps: first, reducing or temporarily stopping ultrafiltration to halt further volume loss, and second, rapidly expanding the intravascular volume with an intravenous bolus of isotonic crystalloid (e.g., 100-250 mL of normal saline). Placing the patient in the Trendelenburg position is also helpful. Albumin is a second-line agent for refractory cases. Stopping the session is premature, and midodrine is an oral agent used for prevention, not acute treatment.
A 54-year-old man on in-center hemodialysis is undergoing dietary counseling. His most recent pre-dialysis laboratory results included a potassium of 6.4 mEq/L and a phosphorus of 6.1 mg/dL. He reports struggling with dietary restrictions. The patient should be advised that which of the following meals is most likely contributing to his electrolyte abnormalities?
Scrambled egg whites with white toast and apple juice.
A baked chicken breast with white rice and steamed asparagus.
A cheeseburger on a whole wheat bun with a side of french fries.
A salad with grilled shrimp, lettuce, cucumbers, and vinaigrette dressing.
Explanation
This question requires identifying a meal high in both potassium and phosphorus. French fries (from potatoes) are a major source of potassium. Cheese and processed meat (burger patty) are significant sources of phosphorus. The whole wheat bun also contains more phosphorus than a white bun. The other meal options are lower in both electrolytes: chicken and rice are acceptable protein and carb sources; shrimp salad is low in K and Phos; egg whites and white toast are also safe choices.