Head, Spine, and Neurotrauma

Help Questions

NREMT: Paramedic Level › Head, Spine, and Neurotrauma

Questions 1 - 10
1

A 6-month-old infant fell from a changing table. The infant is lethargic with a bulging anterior fontanelle. Vitals are BP 70/40 mmHg, HR 170 bpm, and RR 50. The skin is pale and cool. In this patient, the hypotension is most likely caused by which mechanism?

Neurogenic shock from a cervical spine injury.

Profound vagal stimulation from the head injury.

Decompensation from Cushing's triad.

Significant intracranial hemorrhage causing hypovolemic shock.

Explanation

Unlike adults, infants have open fontanelles and unfused cranial sutures. This allows their cranium to expand, which means they can lose a hemodynamically significant amount of their circulating blood volume into the epidural or subdural space. This can lead to hypovolemic shock (hypotension, tachycardia, pale/cool skin). Cushing's triad involves hypertension. Neurogenic shock involves bradycardia. Vagal stimulation would also cause bradycardia.

2

You are called for a patient who was assaulted 12 hours ago and is now complaining of a severe headache and dizziness. Your assessment reveals bilateral periorbital ecchymosis and ecchymosis over the mastoid process. The patient has no evidence of direct trauma to his eyes or ears. These findings are highly suggestive of what underlying injury?

A zygomatic complex fracture.

A basilar skull fracture.

An orbital blowout fracture.

A Le Fort III fracture.

Explanation

Bilateral periorbital ecchymosis ('raccoon eyes') and mastoid process ecchymosis ('Battle's sign') are classic, delayed signs of a basilar skull fracture. These signs appear hours after the injury as blood from the fracture at the base of the skull pools in the surrounding soft tissues. Their presence without direct trauma to the face or ears makes a basilar skull fracture the most likely diagnosis.

3

A patient with a severe head injury begins to extend their arms and legs, with internal rotation of the arms and pronation of the forearms in response to a painful stimulus. This type of posturing indicates an injury at what level of the central nervous system?

Above the red nucleus in the midbrain.

At the level of the brainstem, below the red nucleus.

Within the cervical spinal cord.

Localized to the cerebral cortex.

Explanation

This describes decerebrate posturing (extension). It is a sign of severe brain injury and indicates damage to the brainstem, specifically at or below the level of the red nucleus (in the pons or upper medulla). Injury above the red nucleus results in decorticate posturing (flexion). Cortical injury results in more purposeful movement. A spinal cord injury would result in flaccid paralysis, not posturing.

4

You are treating a motorcyclist who was struck by a car. He is wearing a full-face helmet. He is conscious, complaining of neck pain, and is becoming increasingly anxious with gurgling respirations. He is unable to clear his own secretions. When considering helmet removal, which finding is the strongest indication to remove the helmet on scene?

The helmet is a full-face design, making a full exam difficult.

The patient is unable to maintain a patent airway or manage secretions.

The patient's complaint of moderate cervical spine pain.

The helmet fits loosely, allowing for excessive head movement.

Explanation

When you encounter a trauma patient wearing a helmet, you're balancing two critical priorities: maintaining spinal immobilization and ensuring adequate airway management. The general rule is to leave helmets in place unless specific indications exist for removal, as improper removal can cause additional spinal injury.

Answer A represents the strongest indication for helmet removal because airway management always takes priority in trauma care. A patient who cannot maintain a patent airway or clear secretions faces immediate life-threatening compromise. The gurgling respirations and inability to clear secretions described in this scenario indicate potential airway obstruction, which requires immediate intervention that may be impossible with the helmet in place.

Answer B is incorrect because difficulty performing a complete exam, while inconvenient, doesn't justify the risks of field helmet removal. Most critical assessments can be performed with the helmet on. Answer C is wrong because neck pain alone, even if moderate, isn't an indication for removal - in fact, it's a reason to maintain immobilization by leaving the helmet on. Answer D is incorrect because a loose-fitting helmet should be secured in place with padding and strapping rather than removed, as removal still poses spinal injury risks.

Remember the ABC priority system: Airway compromise always trumps other considerations in trauma care. On NREMT questions about helmet removal, look for scenarios involving airway obstruction, inadequate ventilation, or cardiac arrest - these are the primary indications that justify the risks of field removal.

5

A 19-year-old skateboarder fell, striking the right side of his head. He was unconscious for about one minute, then awoke and was able to answer questions appropriately, complaining only of a headache. Thirty minutes later, he becomes combative, his speech becomes slurred, and he then becomes unresponsive. This clinical progression is most characteristic of what injury?

Diffuse axonal injury.

Epidural hematoma.

Acute subdural hematoma.

Subarachnoid hemorrhage.

Explanation

This patient's presentation is the classic description of an epidural hematoma. It typically involves an initial loss of consciousness, followed by a 'lucid interval' where the patient seems to improve, and then a rapid neurological decline as the arterial bleed (usually from the middle meningeal artery) expands and compresses the brain. A diffuse axonal injury usually presents with immediate and prolonged coma. A subdural hematoma is typically venous and has a slower, more gradual onset. A subarachnoid hemorrhage often presents with a 'thunderclap headache' and signs of meningeal irritation.

6

A 34-year-old male was struck by a vehicle. He is unresponsive with a GCS of 6 (E1, V2, M3). His vital signs are BP 188/110 mmHg, HR 48 bpm, and respirations are 8 per minute and irregular. His right pupil is dilated and nonreactive. What is the most critical immediate intervention to address the underlying pathophysiology?

Apply a cervical collar and secure the patient to a long spine board.

Administer mannitol 1 g/kg IV push to osmotically reduce cerebral edema.

Assist ventilations via BVM, targeting an ETCO2 of 30-35 mmHg.

Establish a second large-bore IV for fluid resuscitation to improve perfusion.

Explanation

The patient is exhibiting Cushing's triad (hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations) and an ipsilateral blown pupil, which are signs of impending brain herniation due to critically high intracranial pressure (ICP). The most critical, immediate intervention is to temporarily reduce ICP by inducing mild hyperventilation. Controlled ventilation to an ETCO2 of 30-35 mmHg causes cerebral vasoconstriction, which lowers ICP and can prevent herniation. While other interventions are important, controlling ventilation is the most immediate life-saving step. Fluid resuscitation is contraindicated in the presence of hypertension. SMR is important but secondary to managing herniation. Mannitol is a useful adjunct but is slower to act than controlling ventilation.

7

You are assessing a 45-year-old female who was the restrained driver in a moderate-speed frontal MVC. She is ambulatory on scene. She is alert, oriented, and denies any neck or back pain. There is no evidence of intoxication, no painful distracting injuries, and no midline spinal tenderness on palpation. Her neurological exam is grossly intact. Which action is most appropriate?

Instruct the patient to self-restrict her cervical spine movement during transport.

Apply a cervical collar as a precaution due to the significant mechanism of injury.

Document your assessment findings and transport without spinal motion restriction.

Place the patient on a long spine board for transport to the trauma center.

Explanation

This patient meets the common criteria for prehospital clearance of the cervical spine (e.g., NEXUS criteria). She is reliable (alert, not intoxicated), has no distracting injury, no midline tenderness, and no neurologic deficits. Modern EMS guidelines emphasize that in such cases, mechanical spinal motion restriction is not indicated. Transporting without SMR is the most appropriate action based on current evidence. Applying a collar or using a long board based on mechanism of injury alone is an outdated practice. While self-restriction is better than no instruction, formal clearance and transport without restriction is the correct endpoint of the assessment.

8

You are managing a 28-year-old male with an isolated severe head injury. His GCS is 9. He is breathing spontaneously but rapidly. Vital signs are BP 92/60 mmHg, HR 118 bpm, SpO2 94% on a non-rebreather mask, and ETCO2 is 28 mmHg. Which finding requires the most immediate correction to prevent secondary brain injury?

The end-tidal CO2 of 28 mmHg.

The Glasgow Coma Scale score of 9.

The systolic blood pressure of 92 mmHg.

The heart rate of 118 bpm.

Explanation

While both hypotension (systolic BP < 110 in TBI is a concern) and abnormal CO2 are detrimental, the ETCO2 of 28 mmHg indicates significant hyperventilation and resultant hypocapnia. Hypocapnia causes potent cerebral vasoconstriction, which can critically reduce cerebral blood flow and induce ischemia, worsening the secondary brain injury. This must be corrected immediately by coaching respirations or providing assisted ventilation at a slower rate to allow CO2 to rise to a normal range (35-45 mmHg). The hypotension also needs correction but the hypocapnia poses a more immediate threat of ischemia.

9

You are at a rehabilitation facility for a 40-year-old male with a history of a C7 spinal cord injury. He has a pounding headache, is diaphoretic, and his face is flushed. Vitals are BP 220/130 mmHg and HR 50 bpm. His Foley catheter bag is empty and the tubing is kinked. What is the most appropriate initial management step?

Administer a 500 mL normal saline bolus to treat his relative bradycardia.

Check for and relieve the noxious stimulus from the kinked catheter.

Place the patient in a supine position to improve cerebral perfusion.

Administer labetalol 10 mg IV to manage the hypertensive crisis.

Explanation

This patient is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia, a life-threatening condition in patients with spinal cord injuries at T6 or above. It is caused by a noxious stimulus below the level of injury (in this case, a full bladder from a kinked catheter). The primary treatment is to find and remove the stimulus. Placing the patient in a sitting position can help lower blood pressure. Pharmacological management is secondary to removing the stimulus. Fluid administration and placing the patient supine would worsen the severe hypertension.

10

A 50-year-old male sustained massive midface trauma in an assault. He has significant crepitus over his maxilla, and you note clear fluid mixed with blood draining from his nose. You determine that intubation is necessary due to airway compromise. Which airway adjunct or procedure is specifically contraindicated?

Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway.

Insertion of a nasopharyngeal airway.

Endotracheal intubation via direct laryngoscopy.

Suctioning of the oropharynx with a rigid-tip catheter.

Explanation

The presence of massive midface trauma and clear fluid from the nose (CSF rhinorrhea) are highly suggestive of a basilar skull fracture, specifically a fracture of the cribriform plate. In this situation, insertion of a nasopharyngeal airway is contraindicated because the device could be inadvertently passed through the fracture site and into the cranial vault, causing further brain injury. All other listed options are appropriate for managing this patient's airway.

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