Acute Coronary Syndromes and Ischemic Syndromes

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NREMT: Paramedic Level › Acute Coronary Syndromes and Ischemic Syndromes

Questions 1 - 10
1

A 68-year-old female with a history of diabetes presents with nausea and sudden-onset severe epigastric pain radiating to her back. Her vital signs are BP 150/90 mmHg, HR 104/min, and RR 20/min. She states the pain is similar to her usual GERD but much worse. What is the most appropriate initial action?

Obtain a 12-lead ECG and establish IV access without delay.

Perform a detailed abdominal exam and palpate for rebound tenderness.

Administer an oral antacid and reassess her pain level in 15 minutes.

Administer 2 mg of morphine sulfate intravenously for immediate pain control.

Explanation

The patient's presentation, particularly as a female with diabetes, is highly suggestive of an atypical acute coronary syndrome (ACS). Epigastric pain, nausea, and diaphoresis are common atypical symptoms. The highest priority is to acquire a 12-lead ECG to rule out or confirm myocardial ischemia or infarction. Establishing IV access is a concurrent priority for potential medication administration.

2

A 70-year-old male presents with 45 minutes of crushing chest pain. The 12-lead ECG reveals a new left bundle branch block. The patient is a candidate for reperfusion therapy. During history taking, he states he had an ischemic stroke 2 months ago with minor residual weakness. Which intervention is most likely contraindicated?

Initiation of an unfractionated heparin infusion per protocol.

Application of transcutaneous pacing pads for potential bradycardia.

Administration of a fibrinolytic agent such as tenecteplase.

Administration of a 300 mg loading dose of clopidogrel.

Explanation

A new or presumably new left bundle branch block in the setting of ischemic chest pain is considered a STEMI equivalent and an indication for reperfusion. However, an ischemic stroke within the past 3 months is an absolute contraindication to fibrinolytic therapy due to the high risk of intracranial hemorrhage. The patient should be transported for primary PCI.

3

A 55-year-old male called EMS for intermittent chest pain over the last 24 hours. He is currently pain-free. His 12-lead ECG shows deep, biphasic T-waves in leads V2 and V3. What is the most critical concern for this patient?

The ECG changes are likely due to a previous, resolved pericarditis episode.

He has a critical stenosis of the left anterior descending artery.

He is likely experiencing a non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI).

The patient is at immediate risk for a life-threatening ventricular arrhythmia.

Explanation

The described ECG finding of deep, biphasic T-waves in the precordial leads (V2-V3) in a patient with a history of recent angina is characteristic of Wellens' Syndrome (Type A). This pattern indicates a critical, high-grade stenosis of the proximal left anterior descending (LAD) artery and signals a high risk of impending massive anterior wall myocardial infarction.

4

A 68-year-old female with a history of a large MI 2 days ago presents with extreme shortness of breath. Assessment reveals a BP of 80/60 mmHg, HR 120/min, and diffuse crackles in both lungs. Her skin is cool and clammy. What is the primary goal of prehospital management for this patient's condition?

Rapidly administer a 1-liter normal saline bolus to increase her blood pressure.

Administer furosemide to reduce pulmonary edema from fluid overload.

Administer high-dose nitroglycerin to reduce preload and afterload.

Improve perfusion by carefully titrating a vasopressor agent and providing oxygen.

Explanation

When you encounter a patient with recent MI presenting with signs of cardiogenic shock, you need to recognize the underlying pathophysiology: damaged heart muscle cannot pump effectively, leading to poor perfusion and backup of blood into the lungs. This patient shows classic signs - hypotension, tachycardia, pulmonary edema (crackles), and poor perfusion (cool, clammy skin).

The primary goal is improving tissue perfusion while supporting the failing heart. Answer D correctly identifies this approach: vasopressors can help maintain blood pressure and perfusion to vital organs, while oxygen supports cellular metabolism in the face of poor circulation. Dopamine or norepinephrine would be appropriate choices, carefully titrated to effect.

Answer A is dangerous because fluid boluses worsen pulmonary edema in cardiogenic shock. The problem isn't volume depletion - it's pump failure. Adding more fluid increases preload on an already failing heart. Answer B, high-dose nitroglycerin, would further drop her already dangerously low blood pressure, potentially causing cardiovascular collapse. While nitroglycerin can help with pulmonary edema by reducing preload, the hypotension makes this inappropriate. Answer C, furosemide, addresses the pulmonary edema but ignores the critical perfusion problem. Diuretics can actually worsen hypotension and reduce cardiac output in cardiogenic shock.

Remember: In cardiogenic shock, perfusion comes first. While you may eventually need diuretics or nitrates, stabilizing blood pressure and organ perfusion takes priority. Always treat the most life-threatening problem first - here, it's shock, not just pulmonary edema.

5

You are treating a 58-year-old male with substernal chest pressure. A 12-lead ECG shows ST elevation of 3 mm in leads II, III, and aVF. His blood pressure is 98/60 mmHg and his lungs are clear on auscultation. Which of the following interventions is most likely contraindicated?

Initiation of rapid transport to a PCI-capable facility.

Establishment of a large-bore IV and administration of a normal saline bolus.

Administration of 324 mg of aspirin chewed and swallowed.

Administration of sublingual nitroglycerin 0.4 mg.

Explanation

ST elevation in the inferior leads (II, III, aVF) should raise suspicion for a right ventricular infarction, especially in the presence of borderline hypotension. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that reduces preload. In a preload-dependent state like an RV infarction, nitroglycerin can cause profound hypotension and cardiovascular collapse. Therefore, it is contraindicated until RV involvement is ruled out (typically with a right-sided ECG) and blood pressure is stable.

6

You are 90 minutes away from the nearest PCI-capable hospital with a 54-year-old patient experiencing a large anterior STEMI that started 30 minutes ago. The patient has no contraindications to fibrinolysis. Your system has a protocol for prehospital fibrinolytic administration. What is the most appropriate treatment plan?

Administer a heparin bolus and begin transport, withholding fibrinolytics until arrival.

Transport to the closest community hospital for stabilization before a secondary transfer.

Contact medical control to recommend initiating fibrinolytic therapy prior to transport.

Administer aspirin and transport emergently, as PCI is always superior to fibrinolytics.

Explanation

Guidelines for STEMI care emphasize minimizing total ischemic time. While PCI is the preferred reperfusion strategy, it must be timely. A 'door-to-balloon' time of over 90-120 minutes is considered an unacceptable delay. Given the 90-minute transport time, the patient would benefit more from early reperfusion with prehospital fibrinolytics (door-to-needle time < 30 min) than a delayed PCI.

7

A 34-year-old female complains of recurrent, severe chest pain that occurs at rest, often in the early morning. She provides an ECG from a previous episode showing transient ST elevation that resolved when her pain subsided. Her coronary arteries were found to be clear on a recent angiogram. What is the most likely underlying cause of her symptoms?

Focal spasms of the coronary arteries that temporarily restrict blood flow.

A fixed, high-grade stenosis of a major coronary artery.

Microvascular dysfunction unrelated to the epicardial coronary arteries.

Rupture of an unstable atherosclerotic plaque causing thrombosis.

Explanation

This clinical picture is classic for Prinzmetal's (or variant) angina. It is characterized by transient ST-segment elevation during an episode of chest pain (typically at rest), caused by focal coronary artery spasm. The arteries themselves are often free of significant atherosclerotic disease. The ECG changes and symptoms resolve when the spasm subsides.

8

You are on scene with a 60-year-old male with a 1-hour history of 8/10 crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. His 12-lead ECG shows a clear inferior STEMI. The patient insists it is indigestion and refuses to go to the hospital. He is alert and oriented with decision-making capacity. What is your most appropriate next action?

Contact medical control for an order to physically restrain the patient for transport.

Inform the patient that you will be required to call law enforcement to force him to go to the hospital.

Calmly explain the ECG findings, the diagnosis, and the risk of sudden death or permanent heart damage without immediate treatment.

Have the patient sign the refusal form and immediately clear the scene.

Explanation

This question tests your understanding of informed consent and patient autonomy in emergency medicine. When you encounter a competent adult patient refusing life-saving treatment, you must balance respecting their autonomy with your duty to provide appropriate care.

The correct approach is D - calmly explaining the ECG findings, diagnosis, and serious risks without immediate treatment. An inferior STEMI represents a medical emergency where delay significantly increases mortality and morbidity. Your role is to ensure the patient truly understands the gravity of their condition before making an informed decision. Many patients minimize cardiac symptoms, attributing them to less serious causes like indigestion. By clearly explaining that the ECG shows active heart muscle death and the immediate risk of cardiac arrest or permanent disability, you're providing the information necessary for truly informed consent.

A is inappropriate because simply having a refusal signed without ensuring informed consent is inadequate - the patient doesn't understand the true nature of their condition. B is wrong because competent adults cannot be physically restrained for medical treatment against their will, and medical control cannot override patient autonomy in this situation. C is incorrect because law enforcement cannot force a competent adult to accept medical treatment for their own benefit.

Key takeaway: Always ensure informed refusal by clearly explaining the diagnosis, immediate risks, and consequences of refusing treatment. Document that you provided this information. If the patient still refuses after understanding the risks, then respect their autonomy and have them sign the refusal form.

9

Three days after being discharged for a large anterior wall MI, a 66-year-old male develops sudden, severe dyspnea. On exam, he is in respiratory distress with diffuse rales and a new, loud holosystolic murmur is auscultated at the apex. What is the most likely cause of his acute deterioration?

A new pulmonary embolism from deep vein thrombosis.

Reocclusion of the previously stented coronary artery.

Development of a left ventricular aneurysm.

Acute rupture of a papillary muscle leading to mitral regurgitation.

Explanation

This patient's presentation is a classic example of a mechanical complication of an MI. The sudden onset of severe pulmonary edema (rales) combined with a new, loud holosystolic murmur points to acute severe mitral regurgitation, most commonly caused by the rupture of a papillary muscle. This is a surgical emergency.

10

A 12-lead ECG for a patient with chest pain reveals ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, with reciprocal ST depression in lead aVL. The patient is pale with a BP of 102/70 mmHg. Prior to administering any medication to relieve his pain, what is the most important assessment to perform?

Obtain a right-sided 12-lead ECG to assess for right ventricular involvement.

Auscultate the lungs for the presence of rales or crackles.

Obtain a posterior 12-lead ECG to rule out posterior wall extension.

Check for a peripheral pulse deficit to rule out aortic dissection.

Explanation

An inferior wall MI (ST elevation in II, III, aVF) can extend to the right ventricle. Given the patient's borderline hypotension, assessing for RV involvement is critical before administering any preload-reducing medications like nitroglycerin or morphine, which could cause a precipitous drop in blood pressure. A right-sided ECG is the definitive prehospital tool for this assessment.

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