Conditions and Treatments - NCLEX-PN
Card 0 of 4700
A client has just undergone an electrocardiogram (ECG), the nurse notes that the QRS complex is measured to be 0.09 seconds. What is the first action the nurse should take?
A client has just undergone an electrocardiogram (ECG), the nurse notes that the QRS complex is measured to be 0.09 seconds. What is the first action the nurse should take?
This is a normal finding, the QRS should have a duration between 0.6-0.12 seconds.
This is a normal finding, the QRS should have a duration between 0.6-0.12 seconds.
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Which of the following is not a response normally seen in liver disease?
Which of the following is not a response normally seen in liver disease?
The liver generally responds to injury in the following ways: inflammation, necrosis or apoptosis, degeneration leading to accumulation of intracellular deposits, fibrosis, and regeneration. Some of these, such as inflammation and mild degeneration, are reversible. Other changes, such as severe degeneration and fibrosis, may be permanent.
The liver generally responds to injury in the following ways: inflammation, necrosis or apoptosis, degeneration leading to accumulation of intracellular deposits, fibrosis, and regeneration. Some of these, such as inflammation and mild degeneration, are reversible. Other changes, such as severe degeneration and fibrosis, may be permanent.
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Which EKG lead localizes to the base of the heart?
Which EKG lead localizes to the base of the heart?
aVF is the main lead that points to the base of the heart (inferiorly). ST segment elevations in this lead help localize the area of infarction and can help identify the coronary artery involved. The precordial leads (V1-V6) do not point towards the base of the heart. Lead I is considered a lateral lead.
aVF is the main lead that points to the base of the heart (inferiorly). ST segment elevations in this lead help localize the area of infarction and can help identify the coronary artery involved. The precordial leads (V1-V6) do not point towards the base of the heart. Lead I is considered a lateral lead.
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Which of the following is a neurological movement disorder typified by sustained muscle contractions causing abnormal posture, twisting, restricted movement, and pain?
Which of the following is a neurological movement disorder typified by sustained muscle contractions causing abnormal posture, twisting, restricted movement, and pain?
Dystonia is a condition of sustained muscle contractions causing abnormal posture, twisting, restricted movement, and pain. Torticollis is a form of dystonia specific to the muscles of the neck. Ballismus is a condition of rapid, violent involuntary motions. Geniospasm is specific to the mentalis muscle, causing involuntary movements of the jaw.
Dystonia is a condition of sustained muscle contractions causing abnormal posture, twisting, restricted movement, and pain. Torticollis is a form of dystonia specific to the muscles of the neck. Ballismus is a condition of rapid, violent involuntary motions. Geniospasm is specific to the mentalis muscle, causing involuntary movements of the jaw.
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Which of the following would raise suspicion for thrombocytopenia?
Which of the following would raise suspicion for thrombocytopenia?
Thrombocytopenia occurs when the blood does not have a high enough platelet count. Slow clotting blood, increased bruising, or petechiae can all point to thrombocytopenia.
Thrombocytopenia occurs when the blood does not have a high enough platelet count. Slow clotting blood, increased bruising, or petechiae can all point to thrombocytopenia.
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Anemia, a side effect of many chemotherapeutic agents, involves which of the following?
Anemia, a side effect of many chemotherapeutic agents, involves which of the following?
Anemia is a condition caused the the deficiency of healthy red blood cells in the blood stream. This results in lack of sufficient oxygen delivery to tissues.
Anemia is a condition caused the the deficiency of healthy red blood cells in the blood stream. This results in lack of sufficient oxygen delivery to tissues.
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Which of the following is not a proven risk-factor for the development of oral cancer?
Which of the following is not a proven risk-factor for the development of oral cancer?
All of the above are proven risk factors with the exception of mouthwash use. Poor dental care, prolonged present irritation (such as excessive flossing), tobacco and alcohol use, infection with certain strains of HPV, and an unbalanced diet can increase the risk of oral cancer.
All of the above are proven risk factors with the exception of mouthwash use. Poor dental care, prolonged present irritation (such as excessive flossing), tobacco and alcohol use, infection with certain strains of HPV, and an unbalanced diet can increase the risk of oral cancer.
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With what co-infection is Burkitt lymphoma associated?
With what co-infection is Burkitt lymphoma associated?
EBV infection is common in Burkitt lymphoma. In malaria-endemic areas, it is thought that the cancer is actually caused by chronic malarial infection increasing a person's susceptibility to chronic EBV infection. The same is assumed about HIV co-infection with EBV in the United States.
None of the other infections listed are associated with Burkitt lymphoma.
EBV infection is common in Burkitt lymphoma. In malaria-endemic areas, it is thought that the cancer is actually caused by chronic malarial infection increasing a person's susceptibility to chronic EBV infection. The same is assumed about HIV co-infection with EBV in the United States.
None of the other infections listed are associated with Burkitt lymphoma.
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What is the most common malignant brain tumor in children?
What is the most common malignant brain tumor in children?
90% of medulloblastomas are in pediatric patients. It is the tumor type in 14.5% of primary brain malignancies of childhood and adolescence. Glioblastoma is the most common type of brain tumor in adults and accounts for 52% of all primary brain tumors. Meningiomas are also fairly common in adult populations, accounting for 34% of primary brain tumors. Juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma is a brain tumor of childhood but only accounts for 2% of cases.
90% of medulloblastomas are in pediatric patients. It is the tumor type in 14.5% of primary brain malignancies of childhood and adolescence. Glioblastoma is the most common type of brain tumor in adults and accounts for 52% of all primary brain tumors. Meningiomas are also fairly common in adult populations, accounting for 34% of primary brain tumors. Juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma is a brain tumor of childhood but only accounts for 2% of cases.
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Actinic keratosis occasionally develops into which skin cancer?
Actinic keratosis occasionally develops into which skin cancer?
Actinic keratosis occasionally develops into squamous cell carcinoma and is generally removed prophylactically. Actinic keratosis is not associated with development of any of the other skin cancer types listed.
Actinic keratosis occasionally develops into squamous cell carcinoma and is generally removed prophylactically. Actinic keratosis is not associated with development of any of the other skin cancer types listed.
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Which of the following types of lung cancer is most linked to cigarette smoking?
Which of the following types of lung cancer is most linked to cigarette smoking?
Small cell carcinoma (also called oat cell cancer) makes up 15% of lung cancers and almost always presents in patients with a history of cigarette smoking.
Adenocarcinoma is the most common type of lung cancer in patients who have never smoked. Mesothelioma is most commonly caused by asbestos exposure, while bronchial carcinoids are often of unknown etiology.
Small cell carcinoma (also called oat cell cancer) makes up 15% of lung cancers and almost always presents in patients with a history of cigarette smoking.
Adenocarcinoma is the most common type of lung cancer in patients who have never smoked. Mesothelioma is most commonly caused by asbestos exposure, while bronchial carcinoids are often of unknown etiology.
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What condition may look like eczema around the nipple but is actually a malignant skin change?
What condition may look like eczema around the nipple but is actually a malignant skin change?
Paget's disease of the breast will often present as itchy, scaling, cracked, red lesions around the nipple. The other conditions mentioned are all forms of breast cancer, but all of them originate in tissues deeper to the breast and will generally present without a visible rash, though some skin changes such as redness or dimpling may occur.
Paget's disease of the breast will often present as itchy, scaling, cracked, red lesions around the nipple. The other conditions mentioned are all forms of breast cancer, but all of them originate in tissues deeper to the breast and will generally present without a visible rash, though some skin changes such as redness or dimpling may occur.
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Which of the following is a benign tumor?
Which of the following is a benign tumor?
A fibroma is considered a benign fibrous tissue tumor. The other tumor types are all malignant.
A fibroma is considered a benign fibrous tissue tumor. The other tumor types are all malignant.
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What is the most common soft tissue tumor in children?
What is the most common soft tissue tumor in children?
The most common soft tissue tumor in children is rhabdomyosarcoma. This generally presents on the face, neck, or extremities, with nearly one-third of cases presenting with orbital involvement. 90% of all cases of rhabdomyosarcoma are seen in children, most often seen in children under 10 years of age. Leiomyosarcoma, epithelioid sarcoma, and desmoid tumors are all relatively rare soft tissue tumors of childhood.
The most common soft tissue tumor in children is rhabdomyosarcoma. This generally presents on the face, neck, or extremities, with nearly one-third of cases presenting with orbital involvement. 90% of all cases of rhabdomyosarcoma are seen in children, most often seen in children under 10 years of age. Leiomyosarcoma, epithelioid sarcoma, and desmoid tumors are all relatively rare soft tissue tumors of childhood.
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Overdose of which of the following over-the-counter medications is one of the leading causes of liver failure in the United States?
Overdose of which of the following over-the-counter medications is one of the leading causes of liver failure in the United States?
Acetaminophen causes more liver failure in the United States than viral hepatitis, making it one of the most common causes of liver-related emergency room visits. It causes approximately 78,000 emergency room visits and 150 deaths due to liver failure each year. None of the other medications listed are associated with liver failure.
Acetaminophen causes more liver failure in the United States than viral hepatitis, making it one of the most common causes of liver-related emergency room visits. It causes approximately 78,000 emergency room visits and 150 deaths due to liver failure each year. None of the other medications listed are associated with liver failure.
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The majority of hepatic infections are with which of the following type of microbe?
The majority of hepatic infections are with which of the following type of microbe?
The majority of liver infections are viral in nature. Hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C are the most frequent agents of infection, with hepatitis C being the leading cause of liver transplants. Bacterial infections in the liver most commonly take the form of an abscess. Fungal hepatitis and prion infection of the liver are not generally seen.
The majority of liver infections are viral in nature. Hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C are the most frequent agents of infection, with hepatitis C being the leading cause of liver transplants. Bacterial infections in the liver most commonly take the form of an abscess. Fungal hepatitis and prion infection of the liver are not generally seen.
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All of the following changes may be seen in chronic asthma except                     .
All of the following changes may be seen in chronic asthma except                     .
Chronic asthma can result in a situation referred to as "airway remodeling," typified by the following changes: increased airway vascularity, epithelial desquamation, deposition of subepithelial collagen, and hypertrophy and hyperplasia of mucus glands and of the underlying muscle layer.
Destruction of alveolar septa and pulmonary capillaries is a common finding in emphysema and does not present in asthma.
Chronic asthma can result in a situation referred to as "airway remodeling," typified by the following changes: increased airway vascularity, epithelial desquamation, deposition of subepithelial collagen, and hypertrophy and hyperplasia of mucus glands and of the underlying muscle layer.
Destruction of alveolar septa and pulmonary capillaries is a common finding in emphysema and does not present in asthma.
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Which of the following viruses can cause hepatitis?
Which of the following viruses can cause hepatitis?
There are multiple viruses that can cause hepatitis other than hepatitis A, B, or C. Among these are Epstein-Barr virus, cytomegalovirus, and yellow fever.
There are multiple viruses that can cause hepatitis other than hepatitis A, B, or C. Among these are Epstein-Barr virus, cytomegalovirus, and yellow fever.
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Which of the following side effects would you most likely expect when providing an asthmatic patient with continuous nebulizer therapy?
Which of the following side effects would you most likely expect when providing an asthmatic patient with continuous nebulizer therapy?
Asthma is treated with albuterol. This drug is a beta-2 agonist, which works to relax smooth muscle in the lungs, and open up the airways. A consequence of this drug is the beta-2 effects on the heart. Beta-2 on the heart causes an increase in heart rate (tachycardia) and is a common side effect seen in the treatment of asthmatics.
Asthma is treated with albuterol. This drug is a beta-2 agonist, which works to relax smooth muscle in the lungs, and open up the airways. A consequence of this drug is the beta-2 effects on the heart. Beta-2 on the heart causes an increase in heart rate (tachycardia) and is a common side effect seen in the treatment of asthmatics.
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What is the final stage of a pertussis infection?
What is the final stage of a pertussis infection?
The final stage of a pertussis infection is known as the convalescent phase. This occurs for 2-6 weeks, after the paroxysmal stage of the disease. During this time coughing decreases, and paroxysms are less severe. The infected individual may experience increased susceptibility to upper and lower respiratory conditions for as much as 6 months after resolution of the infection.
The final stage of a pertussis infection is known as the convalescent phase. This occurs for 2-6 weeks, after the paroxysmal stage of the disease. During this time coughing decreases, and paroxysms are less severe. The infected individual may experience increased susceptibility to upper and lower respiratory conditions for as much as 6 months after resolution of the infection.
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