Causes and Treatments of OB/GYN Conditions - NCLEX-PN
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Up to 90% of cases of pelvic inflammatory disease have what etiology?
Up to 90% of cases of pelvic inflammatory disease have what etiology?
75 to 90% of cases of pelvic inflammatory disease are caused by neisseria gonorrhoeae and/or chlamydia trachomatis infections. This condition, typified by adhesion formation in the uterus and fallopian tubes, can result in serious issues such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, or reproductive cancer.
75 to 90% of cases of pelvic inflammatory disease are caused by neisseria gonorrhoeae and/or chlamydia trachomatis infections. This condition, typified by adhesion formation in the uterus and fallopian tubes, can result in serious issues such as infertility, ectopic pregnancy, or reproductive cancer.
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Which of the following is part of the diagnostic criteria for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
Which of the following is part of the diagnostic criteria for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
The criteria for diagnosis of PID are as follows: fever, cervical motion tenderness, abdominal pain, leukocytosis, elevated ESR, and purulent cervical discharge.
The criteria for diagnosis of PID are as follows: fever, cervical motion tenderness, abdominal pain, leukocytosis, elevated ESR, and purulent cervical discharge.
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What would be the primary concern in the case of rubella infection during pregnancy?
What would be the primary concern in the case of rubella infection during pregnancy?
The primary risk in rubella infection during pregnancy is to the fetus. The rubella virus is able to cross the placenta, and acts as a teratogen by inducing apoptosis in fetal cells. This is termed congenital rubella syndrome. Birth defects can include deafness, ocular damage, cataracts, congenital heart defects, hepatomegaly, and developmental disability or delays.
The primary risk in rubella infection during pregnancy is to the fetus. The rubella virus is able to cross the placenta, and acts as a teratogen by inducing apoptosis in fetal cells. This is termed congenital rubella syndrome. Birth defects can include deafness, ocular damage, cataracts, congenital heart defects, hepatomegaly, and developmental disability or delays.
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What treatment can prevent the development of sensitization to Rh-D antigen in an Rh negative mother carrying an Rh positive fetus?
What treatment can prevent the development of sensitization to Rh-D antigen in an Rh negative mother carrying an Rh positive fetus?
Rh sensitization can be prevented by treatment of an Rh negative mother with Rho(D) immunoglobulin at 28 weeks, then again within 72 hours of delivery. This is a solution of IgG antibody to Rh-D, which is able to destroy any fetal red blood cells that enter the mother's bloodstream before her own immune system is able to form develop a sensitization.
Rh sensitization can be prevented by treatment of an Rh negative mother with Rho(D) immunoglobulin at 28 weeks, then again within 72 hours of delivery. This is a solution of IgG antibody to Rh-D, which is able to destroy any fetal red blood cells that enter the mother's bloodstream before her own immune system is able to form develop a sensitization.
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Jean is a 33-year-old woman who has previously had regular periods but has not gotten her period for six months. Which of the following would the nurse rule out as the cause?
Jean is a 33-year-old woman who has previously had regular periods but has not gotten her period for six months. Which of the following would the nurse rule out as the cause?
Yoga once per week (light exercise) is the least likely of the above to cause a change in regular menstruation. Cross country or long distance running (vigorous exercise) is more likely to cause changes to a woman's cycle. Poor lifestyle choices such as eating habits and health issues such as kidney disease can also cause irregular menstruation. Likewise, pharmaceuticals can have the same effect.
Yoga once per week (light exercise) is the least likely of the above to cause a change in regular menstruation. Cross country or long distance running (vigorous exercise) is more likely to cause changes to a woman's cycle. Poor lifestyle choices such as eating habits and health issues such as kidney disease can also cause irregular menstruation. Likewise, pharmaceuticals can have the same effect.
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Jody is a 40-year-old woman seeking care for dysmenorrhea for the first time. Which would not be considered an appropriate treatment?
Jody is a 40-year-old woman seeking care for dysmenorrhea for the first time. Which would not be considered an appropriate treatment?
There are many different ways to treat painful periods (dysmenorrhea). Ibuprofen and naproxen are anti-inflammatory agents that do not require a prescription and can be very effective. They have relatively few side effects. Lifestyle modification (such as exercise) is another good alternative. The use of oral contraceptives are also frequently used to give women lighter and milder periods. Percocet is not generally used because it is an opioid analgesic and not recommended for long term use because they carry potential for addiction.
There are many different ways to treat painful periods (dysmenorrhea). Ibuprofen and naproxen are anti-inflammatory agents that do not require a prescription and can be very effective. They have relatively few side effects. Lifestyle modification (such as exercise) is another good alternative. The use of oral contraceptives are also frequently used to give women lighter and milder periods. Percocet is not generally used because it is an opioid analgesic and not recommended for long term use because they carry potential for addiction.
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Sandy is 29 years old and experiences bleeding between periods. The nurse marks which of the following on sandy's medical chart?
Sandy is 29 years old and experiences bleeding between periods. The nurse marks which of the following on sandy's medical chart?
Metrorrhagia is bleeding between periods. Menorrhagia refers to excessively heavy periods. Oligomenorrhea refers to light, scattered periods (typically spaced by greater than 35 days). Polymenorrhea is used to describe short cycles of equal to or less than 21 days. Menometrorrhagia is used to describe periods that are heavier, sporadic, and more frequent than normal periods.
Metrorrhagia is bleeding between periods. Menorrhagia refers to excessively heavy periods. Oligomenorrhea refers to light, scattered periods (typically spaced by greater than 35 days). Polymenorrhea is used to describe short cycles of equal to or less than 21 days. Menometrorrhagia is used to describe periods that are heavier, sporadic, and more frequent than normal periods.
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A patient tells the nurse that she is practicing fertility awareness. The nurse tells the patient that the "unsafe period" can range from .
A patient tells the nurse that she is practicing fertility awareness. The nurse tells the patient that the "unsafe period" can range from .
According to the family planning method of contraception, the period in which conception can occur and one should refrain from intercourse is up to 7 days before and 7 days after ovulation. Some references show that sperm can live for up to five to seven days inside the female reproductive system. An unfertilized egg can live from between 12-24 hours. This greatly increases the window in which conception can occur.
According to the family planning method of contraception, the period in which conception can occur and one should refrain from intercourse is up to 7 days before and 7 days after ovulation. Some references show that sperm can live for up to five to seven days inside the female reproductive system. An unfertilized egg can live from between 12-24 hours. This greatly increases the window in which conception can occur.
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Which of the following is false regarding oral contraceptives?
Which of the following is false regarding oral contraceptives?
Oral contraceptives may increase the risk of breast cancer, increase the risk of depression, and increase the risk of developing a blood clot (higher in women who smoke cigarettes). They can reduce the risk of uterine cancer and are frequently used in women with primary dysmenorrhea. Primary dysmenorrhea refers to painful menstrual cycles without an underlying cause.
Oral contraceptives may increase the risk of breast cancer, increase the risk of depression, and increase the risk of developing a blood clot (higher in women who smoke cigarettes). They can reduce the risk of uterine cancer and are frequently used in women with primary dysmenorrhea. Primary dysmenorrhea refers to painful menstrual cycles without an underlying cause.
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A 51-year-old female arrives at her doctor's office because she has not had any periods for 12 months. The nurse should suspect .
A 51-year-old female arrives at her doctor's office because she has not had any periods for 12 months. The nurse should suspect .
Amenorrhea is the complete absence of a period. There are many different causes for amenorrhea. One of the most frequent causes of amenorrhea for women in the fifth decade of life, is menopause. Menopause is the most likely cause of amenorrhea in this particular patient because she has not been experiencing periods for 12 months and is 51-years-old. While pregnancy is possible, the nurse would suspect menopause first. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a pelvic infection usually resulting in severe pain. Endometriosis is a condition in which uterine tissue inappropriately grows in areas such as the rectum or ovary, also typically causing severe pain. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is a condition causing hormone imbalance. It can cause amenorrhea. This question requires the use of strategy to answer. There are several choices that could be responsible for amenorrhea, but which one is the most correct?
Amenorrhea is the complete absence of a period. There are many different causes for amenorrhea. One of the most frequent causes of amenorrhea for women in the fifth decade of life, is menopause. Menopause is the most likely cause of amenorrhea in this particular patient because she has not been experiencing periods for 12 months and is 51-years-old. While pregnancy is possible, the nurse would suspect menopause first. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a pelvic infection usually resulting in severe pain. Endometriosis is a condition in which uterine tissue inappropriately grows in areas such as the rectum or ovary, also typically causing severe pain. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is a condition causing hormone imbalance. It can cause amenorrhea. This question requires the use of strategy to answer. There are several choices that could be responsible for amenorrhea, but which one is the most correct?
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A woman is hospitalized for preeclampsia. Which medication may the nurse administer to prevent the occurrence of seizures?
A woman is hospitalized for preeclampsia. Which medication may the nurse administer to prevent the occurrence of seizures?
Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in women with severe preeclampsia. Calcium gluconate is the antidote if magnesium toxicity is assessed. It should be readily available when a woman is receiving magnesium sulfate. Pitocin is used to stimulate the uterus, often to induce labor. Nubain is an opioid that can be given to women during labor to treat pain. Zolpidem (Ambien) is a sleep aid.
Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in women with severe preeclampsia. Calcium gluconate is the antidote if magnesium toxicity is assessed. It should be readily available when a woman is receiving magnesium sulfate. Pitocin is used to stimulate the uterus, often to induce labor. Nubain is an opioid that can be given to women during labor to treat pain. Zolpidem (Ambien) is a sleep aid.
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Which of the following is false regarding the respiratory system of pregnant women?
Which of the following is false regarding the respiratory system of pregnant women?
In pregnancy, the ribs start to flare (expand slightly) as the pressure from the growing fetus moves the diaphragm upwards. Many women experience this during the third trimester as the baby is at it's largest. The flaring of the ribs is assisted by maternal hormones that enable more flexibility throughout the body.
In pregnancy, the ribs start to flare (expand slightly) as the pressure from the growing fetus moves the diaphragm upwards. Many women experience this during the third trimester as the baby is at it's largest. The flaring of the ribs is assisted by maternal hormones that enable more flexibility throughout the body.
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Which of the following reasons does not indicate the need to induce labor?
Which of the following reasons does not indicate the need to induce labor?
Induction of labor may occur for various indications: diabetes, postmaturity, hypertensive disorders or pregnancy, fetal jeopardy, or logistical factors including distance from qualified hospital or a rate of rapid birth. Induction of labor may only occur if the mother does not have cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD), the fetus has a vertex presentation with an engaged head, and the mother has a "ripened" cervic or is prepared to be "ripened". Fetal macrosomia is a concerning condition and may require intervention, but is typically not resolved by inducing labor. With fetal macrosomia, a cesarean section may be considered instead of vaginal delivery, due to the potential risks of delivering a large infant vaginally.
Induction of labor may occur for various indications: diabetes, postmaturity, hypertensive disorders or pregnancy, fetal jeopardy, or logistical factors including distance from qualified hospital or a rate of rapid birth. Induction of labor may only occur if the mother does not have cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD), the fetus has a vertex presentation with an engaged head, and the mother has a "ripened" cervic or is prepared to be "ripened". Fetal macrosomia is a concerning condition and may require intervention, but is typically not resolved by inducing labor. With fetal macrosomia, a cesarean section may be considered instead of vaginal delivery, due to the potential risks of delivering a large infant vaginally.
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A patient enters the labor and delivery unit. She is having a singleton birth and the baby is showing minimal variability on the fetal monitor. Interventions may include all but .
A patient enters the labor and delivery unit. She is having a singleton birth and the baby is showing minimal variability on the fetal monitor. Interventions may include all but .
Increasing fluid and oxygen administration may increase the overall oxygenation of the fetus and result in greater variability in heart rate. It is advisable to change the position of the patient, however, a supine position is not compatible with pregnancy. Contacting the provider is an acceptable intervention given concern for fetal well-being.
Increasing fluid and oxygen administration may increase the overall oxygenation of the fetus and result in greater variability in heart rate. It is advisable to change the position of the patient, however, a supine position is not compatible with pregnancy. Contacting the provider is an acceptable intervention given concern for fetal well-being.
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What is the most common cause of mucopurulent cervicitis?
What is the most common cause of mucopurulent cervicitis?
The most common cause of mucopurulent cervicitis is chlamydia trachomatis, followed by neisseria gonorrhea. Human papillomavirus, while it is associated with increased risk of development of cervical cancer, does not cause mucopurulent cervicitis, nor does herpes simplex.
The most common cause of mucopurulent cervicitis is chlamydia trachomatis, followed by neisseria gonorrhea. Human papillomavirus, while it is associated with increased risk of development of cervical cancer, does not cause mucopurulent cervicitis, nor does herpes simplex.
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Which of the following conditions can result in temporary masculinization of a pregnant woman which resolves after delivery?
Which of the following conditions can result in temporary masculinization of a pregnant woman which resolves after delivery?
Placental aromatase deficiency is a condition that prevents testosterone from being aromatized into estrogen during pregnancy. This results in a temporary masculinization of the mother that does not continue past delivery. Neither chloasma nor growth hormone deficiency result in masculinization, and masculinizing symptoms of polycystic ovarian syndrome often improve during pregnancy, rather than getting worse.
Placental aromatase deficiency is a condition that prevents testosterone from being aromatized into estrogen during pregnancy. This results in a temporary masculinization of the mother that does not continue past delivery. Neither chloasma nor growth hormone deficiency result in masculinization, and masculinizing symptoms of polycystic ovarian syndrome often improve during pregnancy, rather than getting worse.
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Which of the following conditions presents as vulvar pruritus and pain with porcelain-white vaginovulvular atrophy?
Which of the following conditions presents as vulvar pruritus and pain with porcelain-white vaginovulvular atrophy?
Lichen sclerosus is a condition that presents as vulvar pruritus and pain with porcelain-white vaginovulvular atrophy. It is most common in post-menopausal women, though it does occur on occasion in younger women and girls. While all of the other conditions listed can cause puritis and pain, none of them are associated with frank atrophy.
Lichen sclerosus is a condition that presents as vulvar pruritus and pain with porcelain-white vaginovulvular atrophy. It is most common in post-menopausal women, though it does occur on occasion in younger women and girls. While all of the other conditions listed can cause puritis and pain, none of them are associated with frank atrophy.
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All of the following are part of the Amsel criteria for bacterial vaginosis except .
All of the following are part of the Amsel criteria for bacterial vaginosis except .
The Amsel criteria for bacterial vaginosis are as follows: clue cells seen on microscopic examination, a positive "whiff" test on addition of potassium hydroxide to the vaginal discharge, a vaginal pH > 4.5, and thin gray or white vaginal discharge.
The Amsel criteria for bacterial vaginosis are as follows: clue cells seen on microscopic examination, a positive "whiff" test on addition of potassium hydroxide to the vaginal discharge, a vaginal pH > 4.5, and thin gray or white vaginal discharge.
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What is the most common form of female reproductive tumor?
What is the most common form of female reproductive tumor?
The most common tumor of the female reproductive tract by far is uterine leiomyoma, also known as a uterine fibroid. Uterine fibroids are benign smooth muscle tumors that grow into the myometrium. They can often cause pain in the lower back or pain during penetration, dysmenorrhea, and menorrhagia.
The most common tumor of the female reproductive tract by far is uterine leiomyoma, also known as a uterine fibroid. Uterine fibroids are benign smooth muscle tumors that grow into the myometrium. They can often cause pain in the lower back or pain during penetration, dysmenorrhea, and menorrhagia.
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Which of the following is not a risk-factor for uterine leiomyoma?
Which of the following is not a risk-factor for uterine leiomyoma?
The main risk factors for uterine leiomyoma are family history, obesity, and red meat consumption. Smoking is not a risk factor.
The main risk factors for uterine leiomyoma are family history, obesity, and red meat consumption. Smoking is not a risk factor.
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