A project requires an initial investment of 150,000 per year for 5 years. The discount rate is 10% and the PV annuity factor for 5 years at 10% is 3.791. What is the NPV?
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CPA Bar Quiz
Practice Perform Capital Budgeting Analysis in CPA Bar with focused quiz questions that help you check what you know, review explanations, and build confidence with test-style prompts.
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A project requires an initial investment of 500,000andgeneratesafter−taxcashflowsof150,000 per year for 5 years. The discount rate is 10% and the PV annuity factor for 5 years at 10% is 3.791. What is the NPV?
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A project requires an initial investment of 500,000andgeneratesafter−taxcashflowsof150,000 per year for 5 years. The discount rate is 10% and the PV annuity factor for 5 years at 10% is 3.791. What is the NPV?
Explanation: PV of cash flows = 150,000x3.791=568,650. NPV = 568,650−500,000 = $68,650. A positive NPV indicates the project creates value above the cost of capital. Option A sums undiscounted cash flows and subtracts the investment. Option C reports only one year's cash flow. Option D applies the correct formula but labels the sign incorrectly.
A capital project uses straight-line depreciation of $80,000 per year. The tax rate is 25%. What is the annual depreciation tax shield?
Explanation: Depreciation tax shield = Depreciation x Tax rate = 80,000x2520,000. Depreciation is a non-cash expense that reduces taxable income; the tax savings from this reduction equals the depreciation amount multiplied by the tax rate. Option A is the full depreciation amount before the tax effect. Option B is the after-tax operating income effect of depreciation ($80,000 x 75%). Option C uses a 50% tax rate.
A company is replacing equipment. The old machine has a book value of 50,000andacurrentmarketvalueof30,000. The tax rate is 30%. What are the after-tax proceeds from selling the old equipment?
Explanation: Loss on sale = Book value - Market value = 50,000−30,000 = 20,000.Taxbenefitfromloss=20,000 x 30% = 6,000.After−taxproceeds=Marketvalue+Taxbenefit=30,000 + 6,000=36,000. Selling at below book value creates a tax-deductible loss that increases the after-tax proceeds above the market value. Option B ignores the tax benefit. Option C applies the tax rate to the market value rather than the loss. Option D uses book value instead of market value.
The profitability index (PI) is calculated as which of the following?
Explanation: PI = PV of future cash flows / Initial investment. A PI greater than 1.0 indicates the project creates value (equivalent to a positive NPV). PI is particularly useful for capital rationing because it measures value created per dollar invested, allowing comparison of projects with different investment amounts. Option A is not a standard capital budgeting ratio. Option C describes an undiscounted return metric, not PI. Option D is a ratio used to assess whether an IRR-based hurdle is met, not the PI formula.
A 300,000equipmentpurchasewillgeneratepre−taxcostsavingsof90,000 per year for 5 years. The tax rate is 25% and straight-line depreciation produces $60,000 per year. The PV annuity factor at 10% for 5 years is 3.791. What is the NPV?
Explanation: After-tax annual cash flow = After-tax savings + Depreciation tax shield = (90,000x0.75)+(60,000 x 0.25) = 67,500+15,000 = 82,500.PVofcashflows=82,500 x 3.791 = 312,758.NPV=312,758 - 300,000=12,758. Option A uses an incorrect after-tax rate. Option C uses the full pre-tax savings as the cash flow base. Option D applies only the after-tax savings without the depreciation tax shield.
Project L has a payback of 4.5 years and NPV of 420,000.ProjectShasapaybackof1.8yearsandNPVof95,000. A risk-averse CFO proposes selecting Project S for its faster payback. Which concern is most analytically relevant?
Explanation: Choosing Project S over Project L gives up 325,000ofNPV(420,000 - $95,000). The payback period has two known limitations: it ignores all cash flows after the payback point (which is where much of Project L's value may be generated) and it does not apply time value discounting. While faster payback does reduce some forms of liquidity risk, it is an incomplete metric for value creation. A risk-averse investor should consider a risk-adjusted NPV or scenario analysis rather than relying on payback as a proxy for risk. Options A and B overstate the reliability of payback as a risk measure. Option D is an unsupported assumption.
A project has positive NPV of 45,000atthecompany′sWACCof1228,000 at 15%. Which analytical conclusion is most appropriate?
Explanation: When a modest change in the discount rate flips NPV from positive to negative, the investment's acceptance hinges on the accuracy of the risk adjustment. The WACC reflects the average risk of the company's existing operations; a new-market project may legitimately warrant a higher rate. The analytical imperative is to validate whether 3% is the right incremental risk premium based on the specific characteristics of this project - market risk, execution uncertainty, competitive dynamics - rather than accepting or dismissing it arbitrarily. Options A and D ignore the risk signal. Option C dismisses the risk premium without analytical basis.
Equipment costs 200,000topurchaseorcanbeleasedwithannualpaymentsof44,000 for 5 years paid at year beginning (annuity due). The tax rate is 25% and the PV annuity due factor for 5 years at 8% is 4.312. What is the present value of the after-tax lease payments?
Explanation: After-tax annual lease payment = 44,000x(1−0.25)=33,000. PV of after-tax lease payments (annuity due) = 33,000x4.312=142,296. Option A uses the pre-tax payment without the tax reduction. Option B applies the pre-tax payment to the annuity due factor. Option C uses a different annuity factor.
A company consistently approves capital projects with positive total NPV, yet company-wide ROIC has declined for three consecutive years. Which analytical concern does this pattern raise?
Explanation: A persistent ROIC decline despite an apparently sound capital approval process signals a disconnect between projected and actual project performance. This can result from: overly optimistic forecasts in project proposals (benefits overstated, costs understated), selection bias toward projects that look good on paper, or failure to track and learn from post-implementation performance. A rigorous capital allocation process should include systematic comparison of project outcomes against original forecasts to detect and correct persistent biases. Option A incorrectly attributes the problem to the NPV method itself. Option B incorrectly claims they are unrelated. Option C prioritizes a forecast metric over an outcome metric.
A project requires an initial investment of 240,000andgeneratescashflowsof60,000 (Year 1), 90,000(Year2),80,000 (Year 3), and $70,000 (Year 4). What is the payback period?
Explanation: Cumulative cash flows: End of Year 1 60,000;Year2150,000; Year 3 230,000.RemainingafterYear3=240,000 - 230,000=10,000. Year 4 fraction = 10,000/70,000 = 0.143. Payback = 3 + 0.143 = 3.14 years. Option A assumes the full investment is recovered exactly at Year 3. Option B calculates an earlier payback based on incorrect cumulative totals. Option D assumes recovery requires the full Year 4 cash flow.
A company has a capital budget of 1,000,000andthreeindependentprojects:ProjectA(investment400,000, NPV 120,000,PI1.30),ProjectB(investment600,000, NPV 180,000,PI1.30),ProjectC(investment500,000, NPV $100,000, PI 1.20). Under capital rationing, which combination maximizes total NPV within the budget?
Explanation: Feasible combinations within 1,000,000:A+C=900,000 (NPV 220,000);Bonly=600,000 (NPV 180,000);Aonly=400,000 (NPV 120,000);A+Bexceeds1M. Projects A and C together generate the highest total NPV of 220,000.AlthoughbothAandBhavethesamePI(1.30),Balonegeneratesonly180,000, while A+C generates 220,000.Allthreeprojectscombinedwouldrequire1,500,000, exceeding the budget. The PI ranking confirms A and C should be selected over B alone.
A project has an NPV of 85,000ata1220,000 at an 18% discount rate. Using linear interpolation, what is the approximate IRR?
Explanation: IRR = Lower rate + [NPV at lower rate / (NPV at lower rate + |NPV at upper rate|)] x (Upper rate - Lower rate) = 12% + [85,000/(85,000 + $20,000)] x (18% - 12%) = 12% + (0.810 x 6%) = 12% + 4.86% = 16.86%, approximately 16.9%. Option A uses an equal split between the two rates. Option B underestimates the interpolation result. Option D is the upper bound where NPV is negative.
A project has a present value of future cash flows of 720,000andrequiresaninitialinvestmentof600,000. What is the profitability index?
Explanation: PI = PV of future cash flows / Initial investment = 720,000/600,000 = 1.20. A PI of 1.20 means each dollar invested generates 1.20ofpresentvalue−0.20 of net value per dollar deployed. Option A inverts the formula. Option B would imply NPV of zero (break-even). Option D applies an incorrect denominator of $480,000.
A project requires a 750,000initialinvestmentincluding50,000 of net working capital. It generates after-tax cash flows of 160,000peryearfor6years.AtYear6,salvagevalueis80,000 (after-tax) and working capital is fully recovered. PV annuity factor at 10% for 6 years is 4.355; PV factor at Year 6 is 0.564. What is the NPV?
Explanation: PV of operating cash flows = 160,000x4.355=696,800. Terminal cash flows = Salvage 80,000+NWCrecovery50,000 = 130,000.PVofterminalcashflows=130,000 x 0.564 = 73,320.TotalPV=696,800 + 73,320=770,120. NPV = 770,120−750,000 = $20,120. Option B labels the sign incorrectly. Option C reports only the PV of terminal cash flows. Option D reports only the PV of operating cash flows.
A $5,000,000 factory expansion generates positive NPV at the base-case demand forecast. Sensitivity analysis shows NPV turns negative if annual demand grows below 3%. Current industry demand growth is 2.1%. Which conclusion is most analytically sound?
Explanation: The sensitivity analysis reveals that this project is viable only if demand outpaces current market conditions. The break-even threshold (3%) is above the observable industry growth rate (2.1%), meaning the base-case forecast implicitly assumes either above-market company performance or a market acceleration. This is a significant analytical concern: if demand follows industry trends, the project destroys value. The decision should involve rigorous assessment of what competitive advantages justify the above-market demand assumption, or consideration of a phased or smaller investment. Option A accepts the base case without acknowledging the sensitivity finding. Option B dismisses a meaningful 0.9-percentage-point gap relative to an NPV threshold. Option D incorrectly rejects NPV methodology.
In capital budgeting, which of the following is considered irrelevant to an investment decision?
Explanation: Sunk costs are past expenditures that cannot be changed regardless of the current decision. Including them in capital budgeting analysis leads to biased decisions - the project should be evaluated on future incremental cash flows only. Option B (opportunity costs) is highly relevant because choosing this investment forecloses other uses of the capital. Option C (incremental cash flows) is the foundation of proper capital budgeting analysis. Option D (terminal cash flows) must be included because they affect the project's total return.
A capital project has EBIT of 300,000,ataxrateof2580,000. What is the after-tax operating cash flow?
Explanation: After-tax operating cash flow = NOPAT + Depreciation = (EBIT x (1 - Tax rate)) + Depreciation = (300,000x0.75)+80,000 = 225,000+80,000 = $305,000. Adding back depreciation is necessary because it is a non-cash charge deducted in computing EBIT. Option B is NOPAT only, without adding back depreciation. Option C adds depreciation to EBIT before applying the tax rate. Option D applies an incorrect tax calculation.
A project requires an initial investment of 600,000andgeneratesafter−taxoperatingcashflowsof120,000 per year for 8 years, plus a $60,000 after-tax salvage value at the end of Year 8. The PV annuity factor at 10% for 8 years is 5.335 and the Year 8 PV factor is 0.467. What is the NPV?
Explanation: PV of operating cash flows = 120,000x5.335=640,200. PV of salvage = 60,000x0.467=28,020. Total PV = 640,200+28,020 = 668,220.NPV=668,220 - 600,000=68,220. Option A omits the salvage value from the calculation. Option C adds the undiscounted salvage to the PV of operating cash flows. Option D applies the correct formula but labels the sign incorrectly.
A project has PV of future cash flows of 568,650andaninitialinvestmentof500,000. What is the profitability index?
Explanation: PI = PV of future cash flows / Initial investment = 568,650/500,000 = 1.137, rounded to 1.14. This PI is consistent with the positive NPV of $68,650 from this project. Option B inverts the ratio. Option C uses an incorrect PV. Option D would imply NPV equals zero (the break-even PI).
Two mutually exclusive projects use a cost of capital of 8% (PV annuity factor 3.993 for 5 years). Project X: initial investment 200,000,annualcashflows58,000 for 5 years. Project Y: initial investment 350,000,annualcashflows92,000 for 5 years. Which project should be selected?
Explanation: Project X NPV = (58,000x3.993)−200,000 = 231,594−200,000 = 31,594.ProjectYNPV=(92,000 x 3.993) - 350,000=367,356 - 350,000=17,356. Project X has the higher NPV (31,594vs.17,356) and should be selected for mutually exclusive projects. Option A selects the lower-NPV project. Options B and D use incorrect cash flow or investment amounts.