Long-Run Self-Adjustment

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AP Macroeconomics › Long-Run Self-Adjustment

Questions 1 - 10
1

Based on the AD–AS model shown, the economy is initially in a recessionary gap ($Y_1 < Y^*$). Assume there are no policy actions and that adjustment is not instantaneous. As unemployment remains above the natural rate, wages gradually fall. Which of the following describes what happens to the price level and real GDP as the economy moves from the short run to the long run?

The price level falls and real GDP falls until it returns to $Y^*$.

The price level falls and real GDP rises until it returns to $Y^*$.

The price level rises and real GDP rises until it returns to $Y^*$.

The price level rises and real GDP stays below $Y^*$ permanently.

The price level stays constant and real GDP rises until it returns to $Y^*$.

Explanation

Long-run self-adjustment occurs when flexible wages and prices naturally return the economy to potential output without government intervention. Starting from a recessionary gap (Y₁ < Y*), persistent unemployment above the natural rate causes wages to gradually fall. Lower wages reduce firms' production costs, shifting SRAS rightward and allowing more output at each price level. This process continues until real GDP rises back to Y* while the price level falls. A common misconception is thinking the price level must rise or stay constant, but in recessionary gap adjustment, both wages and prices fall together. Remember the pattern: recessionary gaps close through rightward SRAS shifts that increase output and decrease prices, while inflationary gaps close through leftward SRAS shifts that decrease output and increase prices.

2

Based on the AD–AS model shown, the economy begins in a recessionary gap ($Y_1 < Y^*$). Assume there are no policy actions. As the economy self-adjusts over time, which of the following changes is most consistent with wage and price flexibility restoring long-run equilibrium?

SRAS shifts left as wages fall, raising real GDP to $Y^*$ and raising the price level.

AD shifts left as wages fall, reducing real GDP further below $Y^*$ and lowering the price level.

LRAS shifts right as wages fall, raising real GDP above $Y^*$ and lowering the price level.

SRAS shifts right as wages fall, raising real GDP to $Y^*$ and lowering the price level.

AD shifts right as wages fall, raising real GDP to $Y^*$ and lowering the price level.

Explanation

Long-run self-adjustment occurs when wage and price flexibility naturally returns the economy to potential output without government intervention. In a recessionary gap (Y₁ < Y*), sustained high unemployment creates downward pressure on wages. As wages fall, firms' production costs decrease, making it profitable to produce more at each price level—this shifts SRAS rightward. The rightward SRAS shift increases real GDP back to Y* while lowering the price level. A common misconception is thinking AD must shift for adjustment, but self-adjustment specifically works through SRAS movements driven by changing input costs. The consistent pattern: wage flexibility eliminates output gaps by shifting SRAS—rightward shifts (falling costs) close recessionary gaps, while leftward shifts (rising costs) close inflationary gaps.

3

Based on the AD–AS model shown, the economy is initially in a recessionary gap with real GDP below potential output ($Y_1 < Y^*$). Assume there are no policy actions and that adjustment occurs gradually over time through wage decreases as unemployment remains high. Which of the following best describes the long-run self-adjustment process and the final long-run outcome?

SRAS does not shift, and in the long run real GDP remains below $Y^*$ while the price level stays unchanged.

SRAS shifts left, and in the long run real GDP returns to $Y^*$ while the price level rises.

LRAS shifts right, and in the long run real GDP rises above $Y^*$ while the price level falls.

SRAS shifts right, and in the long run real GDP returns to $Y^*$ while the price level falls.

AD shifts right, and in the long run real GDP returns to $Y^*$ while the price level rises.

Explanation

Long-run self-adjustment occurs when the economy returns to potential output (Y*) without government intervention, driven by flexible wages and prices. In a recessionary gap where Y₁ < Y*, unemployment exceeds the natural rate, creating downward pressure on wages. As wages decrease, firms' production costs fall, causing the short-run aggregate supply (SRAS) curve to shift rightward. This rightward SRAS shift increases real GDP back to Y* while simultaneously lowering the price level. A common misconception is thinking that AD must shift for adjustment to occur, but self-adjustment happens through SRAS shifts driven by wage flexibility. The key strategy is recognizing that recessionary gaps self-correct through rightward SRAS shifts (lower costs), while inflationary gaps self-correct through leftward SRAS shifts (higher costs).

4

Based on the AD–AS model shown, the economy is initially in an inflationary gap with real GDP above potential output ($Y_1 > Y^*$). Assume there are no policy actions and that adjustment occurs gradually over time through wage increases as firms compete for scarce labor. Which of the following best describes the long-run self-adjustment process and the final long-run outcome?

LRAS shifts left, and in the long run real GDP falls below $Y^*$ while the price level rises.

SRAS shifts left, and in the long run real GDP returns to $Y^*$ while the price level rises.

SRAS shifts right, and in the long run real GDP returns to $Y^*$ while the price level falls.

AD shifts left, and in the long run real GDP returns to $Y^*$ while the price level falls.

SRAS does not shift, and in the long run real GDP remains above $Y^*$ while the price level stays unchanged.

Explanation

Long-run self-adjustment is the economy's natural tendency to return to potential output through wage and price flexibility without policy intervention. In an inflationary gap where Y₁ > Y*, the economy is overheated with unemployment below the natural rate, creating upward pressure on wages as firms compete for scarce workers. Rising wages increase firms' production costs, causing the SRAS curve to shift leftward. This leftward SRAS shift decreases real GDP back to Y* while raising the price level further. Many students mistakenly think self-adjustment requires AD shifts, but the mechanism works through SRAS changes driven by input price adjustments. Remember: inflationary gaps self-correct through leftward SRAS shifts (higher costs) that reduce output and raise prices, while recessionary gaps self-correct through rightward SRAS shifts (lower costs).

5

Based on the AD–AS model shown, the economy is initially in an inflationary gap ($Y_1 > Y^*$). Assume there are no policy actions and that adjustment occurs gradually. If wages and other input prices rise over time, which of the following best describes how the economy returns to long-run equilibrium?

AD shifts left until real GDP returns to $Y^*$ and the price level is lower.

SRAS shifts left until real GDP returns to $Y^*$ and the price level is higher.

SRAS shifts right until real GDP returns to $Y^*$ and the price level is lower.

AD shifts right until real GDP rises further above $Y^*$ and the price level is higher.

LRAS shifts left until real GDP falls below $Y^*$ and the price level is higher.

Explanation

Long-run self-adjustment is the economy's natural return to potential output through wage and price flexibility without policy intervention. In an inflationary gap (Y₁ > Y*), unemployment below the natural rate creates upward pressure on wages and input prices. As these costs rise, firms reduce production at each price level, shifting SRAS leftward. This leftward shift continues until real GDP falls back to Y* at a higher price level. Students often confuse self-adjustment with AD shifts or think LRAS moves, but the mechanism specifically works through SRAS changes driven by input cost adjustments. The key principle: output gaps close as SRAS shifts—leftward for inflationary gaps (rising costs reduce output) and rightward for recessionary gaps (falling costs increase output).

6

Based on the AD–AS model shown, the economy starts in an inflationary gap ($Y_1 > Y^*$). Assume there are no policy actions. Over time, nominal wages rise as workers renegotiate contracts, increasing firms’ production costs. Which of the following best identifies the curve shift and the long-run effect on output and the price level?

SRAS does not shift, and in the long run real GDP remains above $Y^*$ while the price level stays unchanged.

SRAS shifts right, and in the long run real GDP returns to $Y^*$ while the price level falls.

SRAS shifts left, and in the long run real GDP returns to $Y^*$ while the price level rises.

LRAS shifts right, and in the long run real GDP rises above $Y^*$ while the price level falls.

AD shifts left, and in the long run real GDP returns to $Y^*$ while the price level falls.

Explanation

Long-run self-adjustment is the market mechanism that returns the economy to potential output through wage and price flexibility without policy intervention. In an inflationary gap (Y₁ > Y*), tight labor markets drive up nominal wages as workers negotiate higher compensation. These rising wages increase firms' production costs, causing the SRAS curve to shift leftward. The leftward SRAS shift reduces real GDP back to Y* while pushing the price level even higher. Students often mistakenly think AD must shift or that LRAS changes, but self-adjustment specifically operates through SRAS movements driven by input price changes. The key insight: inflationary gaps self-correct through leftward SRAS shifts that simultaneously reduce output and raise prices, restoring long-run equilibrium at Y*.

7

Based on the AD–AS model shown, the economy starts in a recessionary gap ($Y_1 < Y^*$). Assume there are no policy actions. Which statement best explains why SRAS shifts during the long-run self-adjustment process?

Sticky wages prevent cost changes, so SRAS remains fixed and output stays below $Y^*$ in the long run.

Higher wages increase firms’ costs, shifting LRAS left so output returns to $Y^*$ at a higher price level.

Higher wages increase firms’ costs, increasing SRAS so output rises back to $Y^*$ at a higher price level.

Lower wages reduce firms’ costs, decreasing AD so output falls further below $Y^*$ at a lower price level.

Lower wages reduce firms’ costs, increasing SRAS so output rises back to $Y^*$ at a lower price level.

Explanation

Long-run self-adjustment describes how wage and price flexibility naturally returns the economy to potential output without government intervention. In a recessionary gap (Y₁ < Y*), high unemployment puts downward pressure on wages, which reduces firms' production costs. Lower costs make production more profitable at each price level, increasing short-run aggregate supply—this appears as a rightward SRAS shift. The SRAS curve continues shifting right until output rises back to Y* at a lower price level. A common error is thinking higher wages would occur in a recession or that AD must shift, but self-adjustment specifically works through cost-driven SRAS movements. Remember: SRAS shifts reflect changing production costs—falling costs shift SRAS right (expanding output), while rising costs shift SRAS left (contracting output).

8

Based on the AD–AS model shown, the economy starts in an inflationary gap where $Y_1>Y^*$. Assume no policy action. If the economy self-adjusts over time through wage and price flexibility, which of the following describes the movement to long-run equilibrium?

AD shifts left, real GDP returns to $Y^*$, and the price level falls.

No curve shifts, real GDP remains above $Y^*$, and the price level stays unchanged.

SRAS shifts right, real GDP rises further above $Y^*$, and the price level falls.

LRAS shifts right, real GDP rises above $Y^*$, and the price level falls.

SRAS shifts left, real GDP returns to $Y^*$, and the price level rises.

Explanation

Self-adjustment from an inflationary gap occurs through wage and price flexibility as overheated markets correct themselves. When Y₁ > Y*, the economy operates beyond sustainable capacity, creating tight labor markets where workers can negotiate higher wages. Rising nominal wages increase production costs, causing the SRAS curve to shift leftward. This leftward SRAS shift reduces output at each price level, moving the economy along the AD curve back to Y* at a higher price level. Students often mistakenly think AD must shift or that gaps persist without policy, but wage flexibility ensures natural adjustment. The transferable principle is that output gaps trigger SRAS movements: leftward shifts close inflationary gaps (via rising wages), while rightward shifts close recessionary gaps (via falling wages).

9

Based on the AD–AS model shown, the economy is initially in an inflationary gap where real output is $Y_1=1{,}100$ and potential output is $Y^*=1{,}000$. Assume there is no policy action and adjustment occurs gradually as nominal wages rise over time. Which of the following correctly describes the long-run self-adjustment and the resulting long-run equilibrium compared with the initial short-run equilibrium?

LRAS shifts left, real GDP falls below $Y^*$, and the price level rises.

SRAS shifts left, real GDP returns to $Y^*$, and the price level rises.

SRAS shifts right, real GDP rises further above $Y^*$, and the price level falls.

SRAS does not shift, real GDP remains at $Y_1$, and the price level stays unchanged.

AD shifts left, real GDP returns to $Y^*$, and the price level falls.

Explanation

Self-adjustment in an inflationary gap operates through wage and price flexibility without policy intervention. When Y₁ = 1,100 > Y* = 1,000, the economy produces beyond its sustainable capacity, creating tight labor markets that bid up nominal wages. Rising wages increase firms' production costs, causing the SRAS curve to shift leftward. This leftward shift moves the economy along the AD curve, reducing real GDP back to Y* = 1,000 while raising the price level. Students often mistakenly think AD must shift or that adjustment requires government action, but the market self-corrects through SRAS movements. The transferable principle is that output gaps trigger wage changes that shift SRAS: leftward shifts close inflationary gaps (rising wages), while rightward shifts close recessionary gaps (falling wages).

10

Based on the AD–AS model shown, the economy starts in a recessionary gap and there is no policy action. As wages and other input prices adjust over time, which of the following correctly identifies the change in SRAS and the long-run outcome for real GDP and the price level?

LRAS shifts left, real GDP falls below $Y^*$, and the price level rises.

SRAS shifts left, real GDP falls further below $Y^*$, and the price level rises.

SRAS does not shift, real GDP remains below $Y^*$, and the price level stays unchanged.

AD shifts right, real GDP returns to $Y^*$, and the price level rises.

SRAS shifts right, real GDP returns to $Y^*$, and the price level falls.

Explanation

Long-run self-adjustment occurs when flexible wages and prices restore the economy to potential output without government intervention. In a recessionary gap, high unemployment creates excess labor supply, putting downward pressure on wages and other input prices. As these costs fall, firms find it profitable to increase production, causing SRAS to shift rightward. This rightward shift moves the economy along the AD curve, increasing real GDP back to Y* while lowering the price level. A common error is thinking AD shifts drive recovery or that adjustment requires fiscal/monetary policy, but self-adjustment specifically works through supply-side changes. The key strategy is recognizing that SRAS shifts close gaps: rightward for recessions (falling input prices) and leftward for inflations (rising input prices).

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