USMLE Step 3 Quiz: Neurodegenerative Disease Management

What this quiz covers

This quiz focuses on Neurodegenerative Disease Management, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for USMLE Step 3.

How to use this quiz

Try each quiz question before looking at the correct answer. Use the explanations to review missed ideas, then come back to similar questions until the pattern feels familiar.

Question 1

1. Add entacapone with each dose of carbidopa/levodopa. (correct answer)
2. Switch to the controlled-release formulation of carbidopa/levodopa.
3. Add amantadine twice daily.
4. Increase the carbidopa/levodopa dose to three tablets four times daily.

Explanation: This patient is experiencing predictable 'wearing-off' motor fluctuations, a common complication of long-term levodopa therapy. The most appropriate strategy is to add a medication that extends the effect of each levodopa dose. Entacapone is a catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) inhibitor that decreases peripheral breakdown of levodopa, thereby increasing its bioavailability and prolonging its therapeutic effect. This directly addresses the 'wearing-off' phenomenon. While increasing the levodopa dose might provide a stronger 'on' state, it does not prolong the duration and can increase the risk of dyskinesias. Controlled-release levodopa has erratic absorption and is less effective for predictable 'off' periods. Amantadine is primarily used to treat levodopa-induced dyskinesias, which this patient does not have.

Question 2

1. Initiate treatment with edaravone.
2. Prescribe a thickener for all liquids and recommend a soft diet.
3. Arrange for percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube placement. (correct answer)
4. Initiate noninvasive positive pressure ventilation at night.

Explanation: This patient with ALS has developed significant dysphagia leading to weight loss and likely aspiration events. This is a major cause of morbidity (aspiration pneumonia) and mortality (malnutrition) in ALS. While dietary modifications like thickened liquids are a temporizing measure, the significant weight loss indicates that his oral intake is inadequate and unsafe. The most crucial intervention to prevent further weight loss and reduce aspiration risk is the placement of a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube for nutrition. It is recommended to place the PEG tube before respiratory function declines significantly (forced vital capacity <50%), as the procedure becomes riskier. Edaravone is a disease-modifying therapy but does not address the immediate life-threatening issue of dysphagia. Noninvasive ventilation is indicated for respiratory insufficiency, which is not his primary problem at this time.

Question 3

1. Haloperidol 0.5 mg intramuscularly.
2. Risperidone 0.25 mg orally at bedtime.
3. Lorazepam 1 mg orally as needed.
4. Quetiapine 12.5 mg orally at bedtime. (correct answer)

Explanation: Patients with dementia with Lewy bodies (LBD) have extreme neuroleptic sensitivity, meaning that typical antipsychotics (like haloperidol) and many atypical antipsychotics (like risperidone) can cause a severe worsening of parkinsonism, confusion, and sedation, and can even be fatal. When pharmacotherapy is necessary for psychosis in LBD, the agents with the lowest risk of worsening parkinsonism are preferred. Quetiapine and clozapine are the recommended options, though clozapine requires blood monitoring. Pimavanserin is also approved for Parkinson's disease psychosis. Therefore, starting a very low dose of quetiapine is the most appropriate and safest choice. Lorazepam can worsen confusion and increase fall risk. Haloperidol and risperidone carry an unacceptably high risk in this population.

Question 4

1. Tetrabenazine (correct answer)
2. Carbidopa/levodopa
3. Clonazepam
4. Haloperidol

Explanation: The first-line treatment for disabling chorea in Huntington's disease is a vesicular monoamine transporter 2 (VMAT2) inhibitor, such as tetrabenazine or deutetrabenazine. These medications work by depleting dopamine in the presynaptic terminal, thereby reducing choreiform movements. Haloperidol, a dopamine receptor blocker, can also reduce chorea but has a much higher risk of side effects, including tardive dyskinesia, and is considered a second-line agent. Carbidopa/levodopa would worsen chorea. Clonazepam may have a mild effect but is not a primary treatment and is associated with sedation and dependence.

Question 5

1. Initiate treatment with fludrocortisone.
2. Advise him to increase salt and fluid intake.
3. Discontinue the tamsulosin. (correct answer)
4. Refer him for a cardiology consultation.

Explanation: This patient has symptomatic orthostatic hypotension. The first step in management is always to review the patient's medication list for agents that can cause or exacerbate this condition. Tamsulosin, an alpha-1 blocker used for BPH, is a common cause of orthostatic hypotension. Antiparkinsonian medications themselves can also contribute, but removing a non-essential, clearly contributing agent is the most appropriate initial action. If his BPH symptoms are severe, an alternative medication with less effect on blood pressure could be considered. Non-pharmacologic measures like increasing salt/fluid intake are important but secondary to medication review. Pharmacologic agents like fludrocortisone or midodrine should only be started after reversible causes have been addressed and non-pharmacologic measures have failed.

Question 6

1. Measure forced vital capacity (FVC). (correct answer)
2. Obtain a chest radiograph.
3. Prescribe modafinil for daytime sleepiness.
4. Initiate empiric nocturnal oxygen therapy.

Explanation: The patient's symptoms of morning headaches, poor sleep, and daytime somnolence are classic signs of nocturnal hypoventilation due to diaphragmatic weakness in ALS. This is an early sign of respiratory failure. The most appropriate next step is to perform pulmonary function tests, specifically measuring forced vital capacity (FVC) or sniff nasal inspiratory pressure (SNIP), to quantify the degree of respiratory muscle weakness. An FVC below 80% predicted would be concerning, and an FVC below 50% is an indication to initiate noninvasive ventilation (NIV). A chest radiograph is not indicated as infection is not suspected. Prescribing a stimulant like modafinil would be treating a symptom without addressing the underlying life-threatening cause. Initiating oxygen alone can suppress the hypoxic drive to breathe and worsen hypercapnia.

Question 7

1. Trial of a dopamine agonist such as pramipexole.
2. Referral for deep brain stimulation surgery.
3. Botulinum toxin injections into the neck muscles.
4. Physical and occupational therapy with gait training. (correct answer)

Explanation: Progressive supranuclear palsy (PSP) is a neurodegenerative parkinsonian syndrome characterized by postural instability with falls (especially backwards), vertical supranuclear gaze palsy, and poor response to levodopa. There are no disease-modifying treatments. Management is supportive and focuses on safety and quality of life. Physical and occupational therapy are crucial for gait training (e.g., using a weighted walker to prevent backward falls) and adaptive strategies for activities of daily living (e.g., using prisms in glasses to help with the downward gaze palsy). Dopaminergic medications are typically ineffective. Deep brain stimulation is not effective for PSP. Botulinum toxin can be used for focal dystonia, such as eyelid apraxia, but is not the primary intervention for the core motor features of falls and rigidity.

Question 8

1. Memantine
2. Donepezil (correct answer)
3. Azithromycin
4. Systemic effects of pneumonia.

Explanation: Donepezil is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. By increasing cholinergic activity, it can have vagotonic effects on the heart, leading to bradycardia and atrioventricular block. While often well-tolerated, this side effect can become clinically significant, especially in older adults or those with underlying conduction system disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, does not typically cause bradycardia. Azithromycin is known to cause QT prolongation but not typically bradycardia. While severe illness can affect heart rate, the most likely pharmacologic cause in this patient is the known cardiac side effect of donepezil.

Question 9

1. Transfer to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics and hydration.
2. Initiate a trial of oral antibiotics and antipyretics at the nursing home. (correct answer)
3. Consult palliative care to discuss withholding all medical interventions.
4. Insert a nasogastric tube for nutrition to help her fight the infection.

Explanation: The most appropriate management plan respects the patient's advance directive for comfort-focused care and no hospitalization, while also treating a reversible condition in a manner consistent with those goals. Pneumonia is a common event in advanced dementia, and treatment can often be provided effectively in the nursing home setting with oral antibiotics, hydration support, and antipyretics. This approach aligns with a comfort-focused philosophy by alleviating symptoms of infection without the burden of a hospital transfer. Transferring to the hospital would violate her directive. Withholding all interventions is an option, but treating the infection with less burdensome measures is also consistent with comfort care. Placing a feeding tube is an invasive measure not indicated in advanced dementia and does not address the acute infection.

Question 10

1. Initiate tetrabenazine to treat the underlying disease process.
2. Initiate an SSRI such as escitalopram. (correct answer)
3. Refer for deep brain stimulation to manage both motor and non-motor symptoms.
4. Prescribe a psychostimulant such as methylphenidate for apathy.

Explanation: Psychiatric and behavioral symptoms are extremely common in Huntington's disease (HD) and are often more disabling than the motor symptoms, particularly in the early stages. Symptoms such as depression, apathy, and irritability are frequent. SSRIs are the first-line treatment for depression and irritability in patients with HD. Apathy can be a component of depression and may also respond to SSRIs. Tetrabenazine is used to treat chorea, not psychiatric symptoms, and can worsen depression. Psychostimulants may be considered for refractory apathy but are not a first-line treatment. Deep brain stimulation is not an established treatment for HD.

Question 11

1. Disease progression independent of his treatment.
2. Worsening of levodopa side effects.
3. Stimulation-related effects from the DBS. (correct answer)
4. A postoperative intracranial hemorrhage.

Explanation: Dysarthria is a well-known potential side effect of subthalamic nucleus (STN) deep brain stimulation (DBS). It is considered a stimulation-related side effect, likely due to current spread to adjacent pathways involved in speech production. This can often be managed by adjusting the DBS programming parameters. While disease progression occurs, the acute onset after DBS initiation makes a stimulation effect most likely. DBS typically allows for a reduction in medication, making levodopa side effects less likely to be the cause. A postoperative hemorrhage would have presented more acutely with more severe neurologic deficits.

Question 12

1. Serotonin syndrome
2. Malignant hyperthermia
3. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (correct answer)
4. Acute dystonic reaction

Explanation: This patient is presenting with the classic tetrad of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS): mental status change (stupor), rigidity ('lead-pipe' rigidity), fever, and autonomic instability. The elevated creatine kinase from rhabdomyolysis is also a characteristic feature. NMS is an idiosyncratic reaction to dopamine-blocking agents, such as the haloperidol this patient received. Elderly patients, especially those with dementia and underlying structural brain disease, are at increased risk. An acute dystonic reaction would typically involve focal muscle spasms (e.g., torticollis) without fever or rhabdomyolysis. Serotonin syndrome requires exposure to a serotonergic agent. Malignant hyperthermia is related to anesthetic agents.

Question 13

1. Initiate donepezil to slow cognitive and behavioral decline.
2. Start a low-dose antipsychotic to manage disinhibition.
3. Refer for caregiver education and behavioral management strategies. (correct answer)
4. Begin treatment with memantine to improve apathy.

Explanation: There are no approved disease-modifying therapies for frontotemporal dementia (FTD). The cornerstone of management is non-pharmacologic and focuses on caregiver education and behavioral strategies. This includes creating a safe and structured environment, managing environmental triggers, and redirecting inappropriate behaviors. Pharmacologic options are limited and used for specific target symptoms, but they are not the primary strategy. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors like donepezil are ineffective and may worsen behavioral symptoms in bvFTD. Memantine is also not effective. Antipsychotics have limited efficacy and significant side effects, and would only be considered for severe, dangerous behaviors after non-pharmacologic approaches have failed.

Question 14

1. Initiate a low dose of lorazepam as needed for agitation.
2. Increase the dose of donepezil to 23 mg daily.
3. Initiate a low dose of risperidone daily.
4. Initiate a low dose of citalopram daily. (correct answer)

Explanation: The patient is experiencing behavioral and psychological symptoms of dementia (BPSD), specifically agitation. First-line management is always non-pharmacologic interventions. When pharmacotherapy is required for agitation in the absence of psychosis, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) such as citalopram or sertraline have the best evidence for efficacy and safety. Atypical antipsychotics have a black box warning for increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia and are typically reserved for severe symptoms, particularly psychosis. Benzodiazepines should be avoided due to risks of paradoxical agitation, falls, and worsening confusion. Increasing the donepezil dose is unlikely to improve agitation.

Question 15

1. A higher likelihood of developing treatment-induced dyskinesias.
2. A more rapid disease progression and shorter survival. (correct answer)
3. A better response of motor symptoms to deep brain stimulation.
4. A lower incidence of dementia later in the disease course.

Explanation: Multiple system atrophy (MSA) is an atypical parkinsonian syndrome characterized by a combination of parkinsonism, cerebellar ataxia, and autonomic failure. Key features that distinguish it from Parkinson's disease include poor response to levodopa, early autonomic failure, and often, cerebellar signs. MSA has a significantly more rapid progression and a poorer prognosis than idiopathic Parkinson's disease, with a median survival of about 6-10 years from symptom onset. Treatment-induced dyskinesias are less common because levodopa is less effective. Deep brain stimulation is not effective for MSA. While dementia is less common than in LBD or Parkinson's disease dementia, the prognosis regarding motor progression and survival is much worse.

Question 16

1. Tau pathology, as seen in progressive supranuclear palsy.
2. Alpha-synuclein pathology, as seen in dementia with Lewy bodies. (correct answer)
3. Beta-amyloid plaques, as seen in Alzheimer's disease.
4. TDP-43 pathology, as seen in frontotemporal dementia.

Explanation: This patient's clinical presentation is highly suggestive of dementia with Lewy bodies (LBD) or Parkinson's disease dementia (PDD), which are both alpha-synucleinopathies. The core features include dementia, parkinsonism, fluctuating cognition, and visual hallucinations (though not explicitly stated here). The prominent early executive dysfunction is characteristic. The parkinsonism in LBD is often symmetric but can be asymmetric, and it typically shows a less robust response to levodopa compared to idiopathic Parkinson's disease. Alzheimer's disease typically presents with memory loss first. PSP (a tauopathy) presents with prominent falls and vertical gaze palsy. FTD (often TDP-43) presents with behavioral or language changes but less commonly with parkinsonism of this type.

Question 17

1. Mild executive dysfunction.
2. Major depressive disorder.
3. Significant dementia. (correct answer)
4. Anxiety and panic attacks.

Explanation: Deep brain stimulation (DBS) is an effective treatment for motor complications in advanced Parkinson's disease. However, patient selection is critical. The presence of significant dementia is a major relative contraindication to DBS. The surgery itself can carry a risk of cognitive decline, and patients with pre-existing dementia are at higher risk for poor outcomes and may not be able to participate effectively in the postoperative programming required for DBS. Mild executive dysfunction is common in Parkinson's disease and is not an absolute contraindication. Psychiatric conditions like depression and anxiety are very common and should be optimally managed before surgery, but they are not absolute contraindications unless they are severe and treatment-refractory.

Question 18

1. Discontinue selegiline due to its anticholinergic effects.
2. Recommend a daily osmotic laxative such as polyethylene glycol. (correct answer)
3. Refer for colonoscopy to evaluate for an obstructing lesion.
4. Prescribe metoclopramide to improve gastric motility.

Explanation: Constipation and gastroparesis are very common and often disabling non-motor symptoms of Parkinson's disease, resulting from autonomic dysfunction affecting the enteric nervous system. After lifestyle measures fail, the first-line pharmacologic treatment is an osmotic laxative, such as polyethylene glycol. Selegiline is an MAO-B inhibitor and lacks significant anticholinergic effects that would cause constipation. A colonoscopy is not indicated in the absence of red flag symptoms (e.g., bleeding, anemia, marked weight loss) as constipation is an expected feature of her known disease. Metoclopramide is a dopamine antagonist and is contraindicated in Parkinson's disease as it can acutely worsen motor symptoms.

Question 19

1. Add a low dose of quetiapine.
2. Discontinue the ropinirole. (correct answer)
3. Decrease the dose of carbidopa/levodopa.
4. Obtain a brain MRI to rule out structural causes.

Explanation: Psychosis is a common non-motor symptom in advanced Parkinson's disease, often precipitated by the dopaminergic medications used to treat motor symptoms. The standard management approach follows a hierarchy: first, rule out and treat any underlying medical conditions (like infection or metabolic disturbance). Second, simplify the antiparkinsonian medication regimen by reducing or stopping the agents most likely to cause psychosis, while preserving motor function as much as possible. The general order of discontinuation is: anticholinergics, amantadine, MAO-B inhibitors, dopamine agonists (like ropinirole), COMT inhibitors, and finally, as a last resort, levodopa. Therefore, discontinuing the dopamine agonist, ropinirole, is the most appropriate first step. Adding an antipsychotic like quetiapine should only be considered if psychosis persists after medication adjustment.