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Mood And Anxiety Disorders Practice Test
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Q1
A 48-year-old man with a history of bipolar I disorder, well-controlled on lithium for the past 5 years, presents for a routine follow-up. He reports his mood has been stable. He has no complaints. As part of his ongoing management, routine laboratory monitoring is performed. His creatinine has increased from 1.0 mg/dL to 1.8 mg/dL over the past year.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?