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Neuropathology Practice Test
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Q1
A 72-year-old man with a long-standing history of poorly controlled hypertension is brought to the emergency department after a sudden collapse. On arrival, he has a severe headache, is vomiting, and has right-sided hemiplegia. A non-contrast head CT reveals a 3-cm hematoma within the left basal ganglia.
This patient's intracerebral hemorrhage is most likely due to the rupture of which of the following vascular structures?
This patient's intracerebral hemorrhage is most likely due to the rupture of which of the following vascular structures?