All questions
Question 1
Passage:
Some legal scholars argue that “sunset clauses” in legislation—provisions that cause a law to expire unless renewed—improve democratic accountability by forcing periodic reconsideration. The reasoning is that sunsets prevent outdated policies from persisting by inertia and require legislators to justify continuation in light of new evidence. Proponents also claim that sunsets can reduce the influence of emergency-driven lawmaking by ensuring that extraordinary measures are temporary unless affirmatively endorsed.
Critics respond that sunsets can create uncertainty that undermines long-term planning, especially for regulated industries and public agencies. They also argue that renewal votes can become perfunctory, with legislators extending laws without meaningful review. In addition, sunsets may empower small factions to extract concessions by threatening to block renewal of widely supported programs.
A conditional defense holds that sunsets enhance accountability chiefly when renewal procedures are structured to promote genuine evaluation—for example, by requiring impact assessments, public hearings, and clear criteria for reauthorization. In such cases, the sunset functions as a trigger for deliberation rather than as a mere deadline. Without these procedural supports, sunsets may increase instability without improving oversight.
Thus, the value of sunset clauses depends on whether institutional design transforms renewal into substantive review.
Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author's argument?
- Some legislatures schedule renewal votes near the end of their sessions when time is limited.
- In jurisdictions that coupled sunset clauses with mandatory impact assessments and hearings, renewal debates frequently resulted in substantive amendments or termination of ineffective programs, while jurisdictions lacking such procedures rarely altered expiring laws. (correct answer)
- Several scholars argue that independent courts, rather than legislatures, are better suited to evaluating the effectiveness of laws.
- One statute with a sunset clause was renewed for five years rather than for ten years after a legislative vote.
- A small survey found that some citizens were slightly more aware of a law’s existence when the law was discussed during renewal debates.
Explanation: This question asks what would strengthen the author's argument that sunset clauses enhance accountability chiefly when renewal procedures promote genuine evaluation through structured review processes. The author argues that sunsets function effectively as triggers for deliberation when they require impact assessments, public hearings, and clear reauthorization criteria, rather than serving as mere deadlines. Choice B provides empirical evidence strongly supporting this conditional framework by showing that jurisdictions coupling sunset clauses with mandatory impact assessments and hearings frequently resulted in substantive amendments or program termination, while jurisdictions lacking such procedures rarely altered expiring laws. This demonstrates that the procedural supports the author identifies are indeed crucial for transforming renewal into meaningful oversight rather than perfunctory extension. Choice C, advocating for independent courts, shifts authority away from the legislative accountability mechanisms the author analyzes.
Question 2
A literary critic argues that translating poetry should prioritize preserving a poem's formal constraints—such as meter and rhyme—over preserving literal semantic content. The critic contends that in many poems, formal patterning is not ornamental but constitutive of meaning: sound, rhythm, and repetition generate effects that cannot be replicated through paraphrase. The critic acknowledges that strict formal imitation can force departures from literal accuracy, but maintains that readers of translated poetry seek an experience analogous to that of the original, and that form is a primary vehicle of that experience. The critic concludes that, at least for highly formal poems, a translation that preserves meter and rhyme will often be closer to the original in what matters most than a translation that is semantically precise but formally free.
Some translators argue that forcing rhyme in the target language can introduce clichés and distort tone, thereby undermining the very experience the critic wants to preserve. The critic replies that skilled translators can avoid such pitfalls through inventive diction.
Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author's argument?
- In reader studies of highly formal poems, translations that preserved meter and rhyme were more consistently rated as conveying the original poem's tone and emotional impact than semantically literal but formally free translations. (correct answer)
- Some poets have written successful poems in free verse that do not employ regular meter or end rhyme.
- In a few cases, translators who attempted to preserve rhyme relied on archaic expressions that were uncommon in contemporary usage.
- Certain languages have more readily available rhyming words than others, which can make rhymed translation easier in some language pairs.
- Some publishers prefer translations that are easy to read aloud at public events, regardless of how closely they track the source text.
Explanation: The literary critic argues that translating poetry should prioritize preserving formal constraints like meter and rhyme over literal semantic content, because formal patterning generates effects that cannot be replicated through paraphrase and provides the experiential core of poetry. Answer choice A strongly supports this argument by providing empirical evidence from reader studies showing that translations preserving meter and rhyme were more consistently rated as conveying the original poem's tone and emotional impact than semantically literal but formally free translations. This directly validates the critic's claim that form is the primary vehicle for recreating the original poem's experience. Answer choice C might seem like a weakness because it mentions problems with rhymed translation, but it only addresses occasional implementation issues rather than challenging the fundamental principle. When evaluating RC strengthen and weaken questions, look for evidence that directly tests the author's core theoretical claim—here, that formal preservation better captures what matters most in poetry translation.
Question 3
A philosopher of technology argues that algorithmic decision systems used in hiring can be made meaningfully fairer by improving data quality and by auditing outcomes, rather than by abandoning automation altogether. The philosopher notes that human hiring is also prone to bias and inconsistency, and contends that algorithms can be tested, monitored, and adjusted in ways that informal human judgments cannot. The argument concedes that historical data may encode past discrimination, but claims that careful feature selection, bias mitigation techniques, and ongoing audits can reduce disparate impacts while preserving predictive usefulness. The philosopher concludes that, provided employers commit to transparency about evaluation criteria and to regular third-party audits, algorithmic hiring can improve fairness relative to purely human screening.
Some critics respond that employers will lack incentives to conduct meaningful audits, especially if audits reveal legal or reputational risks. The philosopher replies that regulation and market pressure can supply those incentives.
Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author's argument?
- In some jurisdictions, anti-discrimination agencies have issued general guidance documents describing best practices for fair hiring.
- In controlled comparisons, audited algorithmic hiring systems that used improved training data produced smaller disparate impacts than unaudited systems and than human-only screening, while maintaining similar job-performance prediction. (correct answer)
- Some employers use algorithmic tools for tasks other than hiring, such as scheduling shifts and forecasting product demand.
- A few highly publicized cases have involved algorithmic systems that exhibited unexpected biases after being deployed for several years.
- Some job applicants report that they would like employers to provide slightly more feedback after a rejection, regardless of whether an algorithm was used.
Explanation: The philosopher argues that algorithmic hiring systems can be made fairer than human screening through improved data quality, bias mitigation techniques, and regular auditing, provided employers commit to transparency and third-party audits. Answer choice B powerfully strengthens this argument by providing controlled comparison evidence showing that audited algorithmic systems using improved training data produced smaller disparate impacts than both unaudited systems and human-only screening, while maintaining similar job-performance prediction. This empirical evidence directly supports the philosopher's central claims that algorithms can be tested and improved in ways human judgment cannot, and that properly implemented algorithmic systems can enhance fairness. Answer choice D might seem concerning because it mentions algorithmic biases, but these are cases without the safeguards the philosopher advocates, making them irrelevant to the argument about properly audited systems. Remember that in RC strengthen and weaken questions, the strongest evidence directly demonstrates that the author's proposed solution achieves its intended outcomes when implemented as recommended.
Question 4
Passage:
Some legal scholars argue that restorative justice programs in criminal cases can reduce recidivism by fostering offender accountability and repairing harm to victims and communities. They emphasize structured dialogues, restitution agreements, and community support as mechanisms that may reintegrate offenders more effectively than incarceration. Proponents cite programs in which participants report higher satisfaction and in which some jurisdictions observe lower reoffense rates among participants.
Critics argue that restorative justice may be inappropriate for serious offenses and may pressure victims to participate. They also question whether lower recidivism rates reflect selection effects, since participants are often screened for willingness to accept responsibility and may already be less likely to reoffend. Moreover, inconsistent program quality can make outcomes difficult to generalize.
A conditional endorsement holds that restorative justice is most defensible when participation is genuinely voluntary, when programs employ trained facilitators, and when evaluation designs address selection effects through careful comparison groups. Under these conditions, observed reductions in recidivism are more plausibly attributable to the program rather than to participant characteristics.
Thus, restorative justice should be evaluated not as a uniform alternative to punishment, but as a context-dependent intervention whose benefits depend on safeguards and rigorous assessment.
Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author's argument?
- In several jurisdictions, restorative justice programs were offered only for property crimes rather than for violent offenses.
- A randomized evaluation in which eligible offenders were assigned either to restorative justice or to traditional processing found lower recidivism in the restorative group when programs used trained facilitators and victim participation was voluntary. (correct answer)
- Some critics argue that victim satisfaction, not recidivism, should be the primary metric for judging restorative justice.
- One program’s facilitators reported that sessions were easier to schedule when they were held in the evenings.
- A small survey found that some participants felt slightly more optimistic after completing a restorative justice conference.
Explanation: This question asks what would strengthen the author's argument that restorative justice should be evaluated as a context-dependent intervention whose benefits depend on specific safeguards. The author emphasizes that the defensibility requires voluntary participation, trained facilitators, and evaluation designs that address selection effects through careful comparison groups. Choice B provides ideal empirical evidence supporting this framework by describing a randomized evaluation that assigned eligible offenders to either restorative justice or traditional processing, finding lower recidivism when programs used trained facilitators and victim participation was voluntary. The randomization addresses selection effects, while the specified conditions match the author's recommended safeguards, demonstrating that rigorous assessment can indeed show program benefits under proper implementation. Choice C, arguing for different metrics, doesn't address the effectiveness of the author's proposed safeguards for reducing recidivism.
Question 5
Passage:
Some political scientists argue that compulsory voting increases democratic legitimacy because election outcomes better reflect the preferences of the entire eligible population rather than of a self-selected subset. They note that when turnout is low, elected officials may cater to frequent voters and neglect groups that participate less often.
Critics respond that forcing participation can dilute the quality of electoral decisions if many compelled voters are uninformed or indifferent. They also contend that legitimacy depends not only on representativeness but on voluntary consent; an election in which participation is coerced may be less legitimate even if turnout is high.
The author argues that compulsory voting can improve policy responsiveness without necessarily undermining legitimacy. The author reasons that if nonvoters are disproportionately drawn from groups whose interests are systematically underrepresented, increasing their turnout will pressure politicians to address those interests. The author qualifies the claim: compulsory voting is likely to have this effect only when enforcement is modest and when voters have easy access to information, such as through nonpartisan voter guides.
The author’s reasoning depends on the assumption that newly mobilized voters will, on balance, shift electoral incentives in a way that changes policy priorities.
Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the author's argument?
- In countries with compulsory voting, turnout is typically higher in national elections than in local elections.
- In several jurisdictions that introduced compulsory voting with modest enforcement and extensive voter guides, elected officials’ policy agendas changed little because the new voters’ preferences closely matched those of existing voters. (correct answer)
- Some critics of compulsory voting argue that any legal penalty for nonparticipation violates individual autonomy regardless of its size.
- A number of civic organizations have supported compulsory voting primarily because they expect it to increase overall turnout.
- After adopting compulsory voting, one country reduced the length of time polls remain open on election day.
Explanation: In this weaken question, the author's core logic is that compulsory voting improves policy responsiveness by mobilizing underrepresented nonvoters, shifting incentives if enforcement is modest and information accessible. Choice B weakens this by revealing that new voters' preferences match existing ones, so no policy shift occurs, challenging the assumption of representational change. This directly undercuts the expected outcome. Avoid traps like A, which notes higher national turnout but introduces irrelevant election type distinctions, not affecting responsiveness logic. C critiques on autonomy grounds, but it's a minor ethical point, not targeting the author's empirical claim. Reminder: RC strengthen/weaken questions revolve around the author's causal reasoning—here, mobilization leading to shifted priorities—so seek choices that disrupt that cause-effect, not just restate criticisms.
Question 6
Risk assessment tools that estimate a defendant's likelihood of pretrial misconduct have been criticized for perpetuating bias, particularly racial disparities. Proponents respond that, when designed properly, such tools can reduce arbitrary human decision-making: they exclude protected-class variables, undergo external validation, and present calibrated risk categories to judges. Because these systems are transparent about which factors they use—prior failures to appear, current charge severity, age at first arrest, and the like—they can be audited and improved in a way that idiosyncratic human judgment cannot. Moreover, in jurisdictions where human judges have historically detained many defendants who would have succeeded on release, replacing discretion with structured guidance may lower detention rates overall. Critics note that historical data reflect policing patterns that overexpose some communities to arrest and surveillance, threatening to encode past practices into the future. But proponents argue that validation can detect and correct miscalibration: if a category labeled 'moderate risk' has equal failure rates across groups, then classifications are fair in the relevant sense. Despite the unresolved philosophical debates, the practical question for policymakers is whether deploying a validated tool will worsen racial disparities in detention compared with status quo judging. Given that the tools omit protected-class variables, are validated for accuracy and calibration, and provide consistent inputs to judges, there is little reason to fear that, when properly validated, their deployment will exacerbate racial disparities in pretrial detention; indeed, they may modestly reduce those disparities by disciplining human discretion.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the claim made in the passage that properly validated risk assessment tools are unlikely to exacerbate racial disparities in pretrial detention?
- Across several states, overall pretrial detention rates declined slightly in the years following adoption of risk assessment tools.
- Judges report that they value having more information about defendants and appreciate the transparency of risk categories.
- An academic study finds that human judges' bail decisions vary widely by courtroom and time of day, even for similar cases.
- In a jurisdiction that implemented a validated tool, detention rates for Black defendants increased relative to similarly situated white defendants after adoption, while overall failure-to-appear and rearrest rates remained unchanged. (correct answer)
- Some tools provide only three risk categories, leading to complaints that they are too coarse to be useful in close cases.
Explanation: D presents direct evidence that a validated tool's adoption coincided with worsening relative outcomes for Black defendants without public safety gains, undermining the claim about not exacerbating disparities. A and C are consistent with the claim, B is attitudinal, and E critiques granularity rather than disparate impact.
Question 7
Small-scale urban rewilding—allowing patches of city land to revert to native vegetation—has been proposed as a pragmatic way to support pollinators without requiring the creation of large new parks. The approach is to convert underused verges, traffic islands, and schoolyard edges into pesticide-free meadows of native flowers, forming a network of habitat 'stepping-stones' across the city. Skeptics question whether such tiny patches matter: they worry that isolated microhabitats will either be quickly colonized by a few generalist species or remain underused because most pollinators cannot locate them amid the urban matrix. Yet three features of pollinator ecology suggest otherwise. First, many native bees have short foraging ranges and can thrive in small, flower-rich areas if nesting substrate is available. Second, urban landscapes often contain linear corridors—railway rights-of-way, creek beds, and boulevards—that could connect patches, allowing gradual dispersal across neighborhoods. Third, because urban pesticide use is patchy, the designation of pesticide-free refuges could immediately increase local survival rates. While the evidence base is still developing, several European and North American cities have reported increases in pollinator abundance following targeted verge management. These reports are observational, and critics correctly note that confounding changes such as weather or general interest in gardening could be at work. However, given the low cost of conversion and the city's capacity to coordinate planting palettes and mowing schedules, the most reasonable expectation is that, even without creating large contiguous parks, a patchwork program will improve pollinator diversity across the city over a few seasons.
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the claim made in the passage that a patchwork rewilding program will improve pollinator diversity across the city?
- Several nearby suburbs plan to reduce mowing along highway shoulders to cut maintenance costs.
- In a pilot across three districts, blocks randomly assigned to convert ten small patches to native plantings saw a 35% increase in the number of native bee species within one season compared with matched control blocks, after controlling for pesticide use and weather. (correct answer)
- Residents living near proposed rewilding sites express support for the aesthetic of wildflower meadows in public surveys.
- A national study finds that honey production has been stable over the past decade despite urbanization.
- An entomology lab reports that a few highly mobile butterfly species can travel several miles between large parks in a single day.
Explanation: B provides randomized, controlled local evidence that small patches increase native bee species richness, directly supporting the claim about diversity gains from a patchwork. A, C, and D are tangential or address different outcomes, and E concerns highly mobile species rather than the broader pollinator community targeted.
Question 8
Coastal managers increasingly advocate managed realignment—breaching existing embankments to reconnect land to the sea—over hard defenses like seawalls. Proponents argue that, over a 30-year horizon, realignment is more cost-effective because newly formed salt marsh dissipates wave energy, reduces overtopping, and requires comparatively light maintenance once natural sediment processes take hold. They further note that marsh creation can offset the loss of intertidal habitat elsewhere, helping jurisdictions meet environmental mandates that, if unmet, can expose them to fines and mitigation costs. Cost models used by advocates incorporate the initial expense of acquiring or compensating landowners, building set-back embankments, and facilitating habitat establishment, but they assume that, after the first few years, nature largely maintains the system. By contrast, the models treat seawalls as escalating liabilities: as sea level rises, overtopping and toe scour demand periodic heightening, armoring, and emergency repairs, all of which are capital-intensive and disruptive. The evidentiary basis for these assumptions, however, is not uniform. Some realigned sites have accreted quickly, keeping pace with sea-level rise; others have lagged, leaving low-lying hinterlands vulnerable to storm surges until vegetation mats are fully established. Moreover, monetizing the ecological benefits of marsh creation—a key component in the realignment case—introduces valuation disputes that can swing the cost ledger in either direction. Even so, advocates conclude that, when maintenance, risk reduction, and regulatory compliance are viewed together, managed realignment outperforms hard defenses on cost. Skeptics respond that the conclusion stands or falls on the performance and maintenance profile of realigned sites: if natural processes fail to deliver the anticipated sediment gains, then realignment could become a recurring expense rivaling or exceeding the upkeep of improved seawalls. The answer lies not in slogans but in site-specific performance over decades and in how models treat uncertain variables such as sediment supply and storm frequency.
Which of the following, if true, most weakens the passage's claim that managed realignment is more cost-effective than seawalls over a 30-year horizon?
- Long‑term monitoring reveals that sedimentation at many reconnected sites is substantially lower than assumed in the models, necessitating frequent dredging and levee modifications whose annual costs exceed those of maintaining modern seawalls. (correct answer)
- Meta-analyses show that biodiversity and bird populations rebound within five years at most realigned sites.
- Sea-level rise projections indicate increased wave overtopping at sites protected by existing seawalls, requiring expensive heightening in coming decades.
- Insurance claims for flood damages in communities adjacent to completed realignment projects have declined steadily over the past decade.
- At several realigned sites, volunteer groups contributed labor for initial planting and monitoring of marsh vegetation.
Explanation: A directly undermines the cost advantage by showing realignment would entail ongoing maintenance costs higher than seawalls. The other options either support ecological or risk-reduction benefits or increase seawall costs, none of which weakens the claim about relative cost-effectiveness.
Question 9
Harborview has explored several strategies to blunt downtown's summer heat island. Tree advocates emphasize canopy expansion for shade and evapotranspiration, while planners point to the extensive rooftop acreage that could be retrofitted for vegetation. Over the past two years, the city piloted green roofs on 24 mid-rise buildings in the commercial core and planted street trees on adjacent blocks. Midday air temperatures measured at pedestrian level on blocks with new green roofs registered, on average, 1.2 degrees lower than on matched control blocks without green roofs; blocks with newly planted trees did not show a comparable reduction. That disparity, officials argue, is not surprising: young trees provide minimal shade for several years, and green roofs start cooling immediately by shading roof membranes and releasing moisture. Critics counter that the buildings receiving green roofs also underwent energy-efficiency upgrades that included reflective roof coatings and improved insulation, which could have contributed to lower ambient temperatures by reducing heat flux into the canyon of streets below. The city's consultant acknowledges this possibility but notes that the albedo of the vegetated plots is lower than that of white coatings, suggesting that evapotranspiration, not reflectivity, explains the cooling. The consultant further points to sensor locations along sidewalks rather than on rooftops, arguing that the measured differences reflect air temperatures where pedestrians walk. While it remains difficult to segregate the many contributors to microclimate, the preponderance of the pilot's evidence supports a pragmatic conclusion for Harborview: in the near term, green roofs reduce downtown's peak summer air temperatures more effectively than adding street trees. Long-term investments in canopy will matter, but for immediate relief in the city's dense core, green roofs appear to be the more potent tool.
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the claim made in the passage that, in Harborview, green roofs reduce peak summer downtown temperatures more effectively than adding street trees?
- In a randomized pilot, some buildings received green roofs while similar buildings received high-albedo roof coatings; only the green-roof blocks showed significant pedestrian-level cooling, and adjacent blocks with newly planted street trees showed no measurable change over the study period. (correct answer)
- Green roofs cost substantially more per square foot to install than planting street trees of comparable maintenance burden.
- Residents report feeling more comfortable on shaded sidewalks than in open plazas during peak summer afternoons.
- Street-tree survival rates in Harborview's downtown are only 55 percent after three years due to limited soil volume and vandalism.
- The city simultaneously painted several roofs white in the same district that received the green roofs to meet an unrelated building-code requirement.
Explanation: The randomized comparison isolates green roofs' effect and shows greater cooling than both reflective coatings and newly planted trees, directly supporting the claim. The other options concern costs, preferences, survival, or confounds without demonstrating superior temperature reduction by green roofs.
Question 10
Auction houses have increasingly relied on financial guarantees—commitments by the house or by third parties to purchase a consigned artwork at a minimum price—to lure marquee consignments. Proponents say guarantees stabilize sales and reduce sellers' downside risk. Yet there is growing concern that guarantees distort price discovery by encouraging bidders to chase lots already insulated from failure. In this view, the presence of a guarantor acts like a floor that invites momentum bidding and masks private valuations, pushing hammer prices above where they would settle on an unguaranteed basis.
Recent sales are cited to bolster that suspicion. In one spring season, guaranteed lots across the evening auctions of two major houses achieved an average hammer-to-low-estimate ratio of 1.18, compared with 1.05 for non-guaranteed lots. Catalog notes revealed instances in which third-party backers placed early, aggressive bids, potentially signaling confidence that others then mirrored. Moreover, houses sometimes set estimates strategically: critics argue that by promising a reserve internally, they are freer to publish estimates that are slightly conservative, making subsequent bidding appear robust.
Defenders counter that guarantees follow quality, not cause outcomes. Blue-chip works with pristine provenance and fresh-to-market status are more likely to be guaranteed precisely because they attract multiple bidders and have predictably strong performance. If so, higher hammer-to-estimate ratios would reflect selection effects rather than a causal influence from guarantees. The publicly available data compound the difficulty: backer identities, side letters, and fee arrangements are often opaque, complicating efforts to control for all relevant variables.
Even so, the author maintains that the balance of observable evidence points to guarantees inflating prices: the behavior of backers in the room, the clustering of high ratios among guaranteed lots, and the institutional incentives to display success. While acknowledging that some non-guaranteed trophies also soar, the author concludes that guarantees, on average, nudge prices upward relative to where they would otherwise land.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the author's claim that guarantees inflate hammer prices relative to comparable non-guaranteed lots?
- Guaranteed lots more often feature celebrated provenance, which historically correlates with higher hammer-to-estimate ratios even in the absence of guarantees.
- Some guaranteed lots nonetheless fail to sell when reserves are not met, indicating that guarantees do not ensure bidding beyond true value.
- In other markets, such as commodities, price floors sometimes increase final transaction prices, suggesting that guarantees can affect buyer behavior.
- Post-sale data show that a number of third-party backers quickly resell acquired works at a loss, casting doubt on their ability to sustain inflated prices.
- A matched-pairs study that controlled for artist, medium, size, period, condition, and provenance found no statistically significant difference in hammer-to-estimate ratios between guaranteed and non-guaranteed lots. (correct answer)
Explanation: Choice E directly addresses causation by holding key attributes constant and finding no price effect from guarantees. The other options either suggest possible confounds, offer analogies, or raise ancillary concerns without showing that guarantees do not raise prices when like is compared with like.
Question 11
Brookdale officials have proposed a 12-mile network of protected bicycle lanes threading through the city's busiest commute corridors. The plan's detractors argue that dedicating existing car lanes to bikes will choke traffic, noting that the number of car lanes would be reduced on four major arterials. But that objection overlooks two features of Brookdale's transportation landscape. First, the city's commute trips are relatively short: half of all solo-driver commutes are under five miles and occur on flat terrain that is navigable by bike for many riders. Second, the city's bus system is frequently delayed by congestion caused at intersections, not along midblock segments where lane counts are highest. Protected lanes, which often come with turn-calming and optimized signal timing, have in other cities smoothed turning movements that impede buses and cars alike. Brookdale's transportation department cites case studies from mid-sized cities where protected lanes coincided with either stable or improved vehicle throughput at peak hours, though it concedes such studies are observational and thus not definitive. The department further notes that protected lanes tend to increase the perceived safety of cycling, which is a key barrier to mode shift from cars. Critics counter that Brookdale's winters are harsher than those in many case-study cities, potentially suppressing year-round cycling volumes. Even granting this, winter is not the only season commuters travel; for most of the year, weather is mild. In light of trip distances, intersection design changes, and the potential for some drivers to switch modes when a comfortable option exists, the department concludes that it is more likely than not that the proposed network will reduce rush-hour car congestion in Brookdale's core. The evidence does not guarantee this outcome: it remains possible that drivers will not switch at expected rates, or that construction will introduce new bottlenecks. However, given the alignment between Brookdale's trip profile and features of cities that have implemented similar designs, the best forecast is a net reduction in car congestion, not an increase.
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the claim made in the passage that the protected bike-lane network will reduce rush-hour car congestion in Brookdale's core?
- Recent surveys show that most Brookdale residents already own bicycles, although many report using them only on weekends for recreation.
- A neighboring suburb plans to widen a highway that feeds into Brookdale, potentially increasing the number of cars entering the city during rush hour.
- A representative survey of current solo drivers on the identified corridors finds that 18% would commute by bike if protected lanes were installed, and their average trip length is under five miles. (correct answer)
- Retail foot traffic in Brookdale's downtown increases substantially on weekends when temporary street closures are in place for festivals.
- Citywide e-bike sales have risen sharply over the past year, with most new buyers reporting interest in longer weekend rides outside the urban core.
Explanation: C directly supports the predicted mode shift by current drivers on the affected corridors, which would alleviate car volumes at rush hour. A and E relate to recreational cycling, B could increase car inflow, and D concerns weekends rather than weekday rush-hour commuting.
Question 12
The Haversham Museum adopted a pay-what-you-wish admission policy last spring, announcing that it sought not merely to boost attendance, but to diversify the socioeconomic backgrounds of visitors. Early reports trumpet success: total visitors rose by a third, and the share coming from zip codes with median household incomes below the city median increased from 22 percent to 30 percent. The museum notes that these shifts occurred quickly after the policy change, implying causation. However, those months also coincided with a wildly popular exhibition on a globally recognized artist and with a temporary transit promotion that reduced weekend subway fares across several lines terminating near the museum. The museum's internal memo argues that while such factors may have raised overall turnout, only lowered price could account for greater economic diversity. Yet that assertion relies on the assumption that the transit promotion and the blockbuster exhibit attracted visitors uniformly across income brackets or, at least, did not disproportionately reduce barriers for lower-income residents. Some grounds for skepticism exist: the discounted subway lines serve neighborhoods whose riders are, on average, more price-sensitive, and media coverage of the exhibit emphasized its broad cultural relevance. While the attendance data are suggestive, they cannot by themselves disentangle price effects from other contemporaneous changes. The museum's claim would be bolstered by evidence that, controlling for the exhibit and transit promotion, the composition of visitors still shifted toward lower-income zip codes. In its absence, the museum's conclusion—that the pricing policy itself primarily drove the increase in economic diversity—remains plausible but underdetermined by the evidence presented.
Which of the following, if true, most weakens the claim made in the passage that the pay-what-you-wish policy was the primary driver of the increase in visitors from lower-income areas?
- Visitor-exit surveys during the exhibit period list the blockbuster exhibition as the single most frequently cited reason for visiting.
- Average per-visitor admission revenue declined by 18 percent during the policy's first quarter compared to the prior year.
- Several smaller museums in the city kept traditional pricing but experienced slight attendance increases during the same period.
- A regression analysis that controls for the blockbuster exhibition and for the routes affected by the transit promotion finds that the share of visitors from lower-income zip codes does not increase relative to prior quarters. (correct answer)
- Posters and social media advertising for the new policy were purchased primarily in affluent neighborhoods.
Explanation: If the diversity gains vanish after controlling for the exhibit and transit discounts, the policy itself is not the primary cause. The other options either reflect revenue, general attendance trends, or marketing placements and do not directly show that price did not drive the shift.
Question 13
A recently publicized longitudinal study followed thousands of children from early childhood into their thirties and reported that individuals exposed to bilingual environments before age five earned more, on average, than those raised in monolingual homes. The researchers attempted to disentangle causation from correlation by exploiting within-family comparisons: in families that moved between regions, some siblings attended bilingual preschools while others did not, and the analysis included sibling fixed effects along with controls for parental education, income shocks, and neighborhood changes. The authors propose that early bilingual exposure enhances executive function and expands occupational networks, which together yield long-run earnings gains. They acknowledge, however, that unmeasured parental traits could still bias results if, for example, the decision to enroll one child but not another in a bilingual program reflects subtle preferences that also shape later investments. Furthermore, while the study excludes families who deliberately targeted bilingual programs for perceived status, it cannot rule out that bilingual households differ systematically in ways not captured by observed controls—such as the richness of home literacy environments or attitudes toward risk. The paper therefore frames its conclusion cautiously: the preponderance of evidence points to a causal effect of early bilingual exposure on earnings, but quasi-experimental replications would provide stronger confirmation. Skeptics argue that selection stories remain plausible: parents who choose bilingual settings might also be more proactive in coaching job searches or cultivating social capital, and these interventions—rather than bilingualism per se—could drive the earnings gap. The debate, in other words, turns on whether an exogenous source of bilingual exposure yields similar gains; if it does, that would strengthen the causal interpretation by reducing the role of parental selection.
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the passage's claim that early bilingual exposure causally increases adult earnings?
- Children in bilingual households are more likely than those in monolingual households to have parents with graduate degrees.
- A policy change randomly assigned bilingual instruction to half of incoming kindergarten classes in certain districts for a limited period, and follow-up data show earnings gains of similar magnitude for those randomly assigned to bilingual classrooms compared with their peers, even after adjusting for district and cohort effects. (correct answer)
- Adults who self-study a second language in their twenties exhibit modest short‑term memory improvements but no immediate wage boosts.
- The earnings premium associated with early bilingual exposure is concentrated in occupations with frequent customer contact and international travel.
- Household surveys reveal that bilingual families own significantly more children's books and report spending more hours reading to their children than monolingual families do.
Explanation: B provides a quasi-experimental assignment that replicates the earnings effect, reducing concerns about parental selection. The other options either introduce confounds, speak to different populations or mechanisms without addressing causality, or suggest alternative explanations.
Question 14
Curators at major museums often assert that their exhibitions reflect a careful balance of historical importance and public interest, but critics argue that such judgments routinely favor already established artists at the expense of emerging voices. In response, several museums are testing an algorithm that ranks candidate works by synthesizing auction records, visitor engagement metrics from past shows, and peer-reviewed assessments. The system's designers claim that, by grounding recommendations in outcome data rather than tacit networks, the tool will counteract curators' tendency to recycle the same names. Early demonstrations highlight the model's ability to surface artists who have moderate but rising engagement scores and positive critical reception, suggesting a pipeline beyond the canon. Yet the case for bias reduction is not straightforward. Auction markets can encode prestige effects that inflate prices for familiar names, and peer review may privilege styles already validated by influential institutions. If the model learns that such signals predict attendance, it could perpetuate the very bias it is meant to offset. The museum consortium piloting the tool insists that weighting can be adjusted and that curators will use the rankings as one input among many, not as mandates. Still, the headline promise goes further: that deploying the algorithm will reduce curator bias toward established artists by reorienting selection around data most closely tied to audience response and critical quality. Whether that promise is credible depends on what the model actually learns and on the provenance of the data it ingests. If its most predictive features are those saturated with past institutional choices, then a data-driven overlay may merely launder old preferences through a new interface. If, on the other hand, the model elevates distinct signals that are plausibly independent of legacy gatekeeping, then it could indeed broaden representation.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the passage's claim that adopting the algorithm will reduce curator bias toward established artists?
- Before deployment, the model was tuned to impose a penalty when an artist had been featured in multiple major shows within the prior five years.
- Feature importance analysis reveals that the strongest predictors in the model are prior inclusion in major museum shows and average auction hammer price, both of which heavily favor well-established artists. (correct answer)
- Curators will retain discretion to override the algorithm's recommendations in order to create cohesive narratives for specific exhibitions.
- In a small pilot, museums that consulted the rankings increased the share of first-time exhibitors while maintaining attendance levels comparable to prior seasons.
- The algorithm's engagement input is derived from anonymized time-in-gallery sensors rather than from social media follower counts.
Explanation: B shows the model is driven by signals that encode legacy status, making it likely to reproduce, not reduce, bias toward established artists. A and D would strengthen the claim, while C and E do not directly indicate that the algorithm will favor established artists.
Question 15
An environmental economist argues that congestion pricing—charging drivers a fee to enter a city center during peak hours—reduces urban air pollution chiefly by decreasing total vehicle miles traveled. The economist acknowledges that some drivers may shift their trips to off-peak periods, but claims that the overall effect is fewer car trips, increased public transit use, and therefore lower emissions. The economist further contends that the policy is especially effective when revenue is earmarked for transit improvements, which makes alternatives to driving more attractive and sustains reductions over time. The economist concludes that, for large cities with existing transit systems, adopting congestion pricing will generally produce a substantial and durable improvement in air quality.
Skeptics argue that drivers may respond by taking longer routes to avoid the priced zone, increasing miles traveled and shifting pollution to adjacent neighborhoods. The economist replies that such diversion is limited because the priced zone typically contains the most common destinations, and because enforcement and boundary design can minimize avoidance.
Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the author's argument?
- In one city that adopted congestion pricing, a majority of residents reported supporting the policy after it had been in effect for one year.
- In several large cities with existing transit systems, congestion pricing led many drivers to reroute around the priced zone, increasing total vehicle miles traveled and leaving overall emissions unchanged. (correct answer)
- Some cities without congestion pricing have improved air quality by switching municipal bus fleets from diesel to electric power.
- In certain cities, congestion pricing revenue was not legally earmarked for transit improvements but was instead directed to the general budget.
- After congestion pricing was introduced in one city, average traffic speeds inside the priced zone increased slightly during peak hours.
Explanation: The environmental economist argues that congestion pricing reduces urban air pollution chiefly by decreasing total vehicle miles traveled, leading to fewer car trips and lower emissions. The economist acknowledges concerns about drivers taking longer routes but dismisses this as limited because the priced zone contains common destinations. Answer choice B directly weakens this reasoning by providing evidence that in several large cities, congestion pricing actually led drivers to reroute around the priced zone, increasing total vehicle miles traveled and leaving overall emissions unchanged. This contradicts the economist's core mechanism—that congestion pricing reduces total miles traveled—and shows that the diversion effect the economist minimized can actually be substantial enough to negate environmental benefits. Answer choice C might seem relevant because it mentions air quality improvements, but it describes an alternative method rather than addressing the effectiveness of congestion pricing itself. Remember that in RC strengthen and weaken questions, the correct answer must directly engage with the author's specific logical chain, not introduce tangentially related information.
Question 16
Passage:
Economists who study innovation policy often claim that patents are necessary to stimulate research and development by allowing inventors to recoup fixed costs. Without exclusive rights, the argument goes, competitors could copy inventions at low marginal cost, driving prices down and making initial investment irrational.
However, some scholars note that in certain industries—particularly those with rapid product cycles—firms may innovate for reasons other than patent protection, such as being first to market, building complementary services, or benefiting from learning-by-doing. They also argue that patents can sometimes impede innovation by creating licensing bottlenecks or by encouraging strategic litigation.
The author argues for a narrower claim: in industries where innovation is cumulative and requires access to many prior inventions, broad patents are more likely to reduce innovation than increase it. The author reasons that when each new product depends on multiple patented components, negotiating licenses can be costly and uncertain, and firms may delay or abandon projects. The author allows that patents may still be useful when a single invention can be commercialized largely independently.
Thus, the author’s reasoning relies on the idea that licensing complexity in cumulative industries is substantial enough to outweigh the incentive benefits of broad patents.
Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author's argument?
- In several cumulative-innovation industries, firms that hold large patent portfolios tend to earn higher profits than firms with few patents.
- Empirical studies of cumulative-innovation industries show that broad patents are associated with increased project abandonment due to failed licensing negotiations, even when R&D budgets are stable. (correct answer)
- Some courts have recently shortened the time required to resolve patent infringement lawsuits by adopting specialized patent dockets.
- Many scholars believe that patents are essential in industries where a single invention can be commercialized with minimal reliance on prior inventions.
- In a small number of cases, firms in cumulative industries report that licensing negotiations take several weeks longer than they did a decade ago.
Explanation: In this strengthen question, the author's reasoning centers on how broad patents in cumulative-innovation industries create licensing bottlenecks that reduce innovation by causing project delays or abandonments, outweighing incentive benefits. Choice B strengthens this by offering empirical evidence of increased abandonments from failed negotiations, directly bolstering the claim that complexity hinders progress. This ties into the author's distinction from non-cumulative industries, affirming the core assumption. A common trap is A, which notes higher profits for patent-heavy firms, but it introduces irrelevant aggregate profits without addressing innovation reduction in cumulative contexts. E seems related with longer negotiations, but its 'small number' and 'weeks longer' are too minor to strongly support widespread impact. Key takeaway: for RC strengthen/weaken, evaluate how the choice affects the author's conditional logic—here, licensing costs outweighing benefits—rather than bringing in new, unrelated economic data.
Question 17
On a wind- and solar-rich island whose grid is aging and geographically stretched, residents face a familiar dilemma: how best to backstop variable renewables so that a lightning storm in the hills or a windless morning does not leave a fishing village in the dark. The public utility has floated two options. One is to expand diesel backup capacity at the central power station, adding new generators and larger fuel storage tanks. The other is to install a network of community-scale batteries distributed across villages, each tied to local solar arrays and managed by software that balances supply and demand. Advocates of the diesel expansion note that the technology is proven and dispatchable. Proponents of the battery network argue that, although batteries have upfront costs, they can absorb local solar surpluses during the day, release power in the evening peak, and alleviate stress on long transmission lines. A yearlong pilot in one village with a 1 megawatt-hour battery saw outages fall and the diesel plant run less frequently, saving fuel. Still, a systemwide decision requires more than a single pilot: fuel prices fluctuate, batteries degrade in heat, and coordinating many assets introduces complexity. Yet batteries could reduce voltage dips that trip appliances and avoid the inefficiencies of running large generators at partial loads. Because island residents pay for both reliability and fuel, the long-run cost picture matters. The utility's preliminary analysis concludes that community-scale batteries will be more cost-effective and will enhance reliability compared with expanding diesel alone, primarily due to reduced fuel use and fewer transmission-related outages. That conclusion may be right, but it rests on assumptions about future prices and performance that are contestable. If those assumptions break against the batteries, the diesel expansion might look cheaper and comparably reliable after all.
Which of the following, if true, most weakens the passage's conclusion that community-scale batteries would be more cost-effective and enhance reliability compared with expanding diesel backup?
- A national subsidy recently enacted will cut the island's diesel fuel cost roughly in half for at least the next decade, while industry forecasts project flat battery prices over the same period. (correct answer)
- The pilot village experienced a 60 percent reduction in outages after installing its community battery and software controller.
- Laboratory tests indicate that battery capacity declines faster in tropical heat, but weatherized enclosures largely mitigate the effect at a modest maintenance cost increase.
- Modern diesel generators can be remotely started and brought to full output within minutes when needed.
- Surveys show that island residents prefer to invest in rooftop solar panels they can see rather than in batteries housed in utility buildings.
Explanation: A undercuts the cost-effectiveness rationale by making diesel far cheaper relative to batteries for the planning horizon. B strengthens the conclusion, while C, D, and E do not directly overturn the combined cost and reliability comparison at the system level.
Question 18
Archaeologists studying Island X have focused on a massive stepped platform built of coral limestone blocks that rises above a coastal plain. Because the edifice required quarrying, transporting, and placing thousands of heavy stones, some researchers infer the existence of a centralized authority capable of mobilizing and directing labor. That inference often rests on a further premise: that the platform was constructed within a compressed time frame, such as a single building season, when the tides and winds favored stone transport. If the work was tightly scheduled, the argument goes, only a hierarchy with coercive or administrative power could coordinate quarry teams, provision workers, and orchestrate placement with sufficient precision. Yet other evidence complicates this reading. Domestic sites on the island show relatively even distributions of prestige goods and no clear elite residences for the period usually assigned to the platform's construction. The pottery is remarkably uniform, suggesting an egalitarian social milieu. Tool marks on the lower courses vary in angle and depth, which may indicate multiple work groups with differing techniques, though this could occur under centralized oversight as well. Some scholars propose that communal institutions, such as seasonal work feasts, could have organized labor episodically without formal hierarchy. Ethnographic parallels from other archipelagos describe large projects undertaken through ritual obligation and rotating clan sponsorship over many years. The material record on Island X is silent on how long the platform took to build; dates for associated charcoal scatter across more than a century, but may represent later activity atop earlier terraces. Still, because the precision of the upper tiers appears high and the stones are well dressed, proponents of centralization argue that sustained command was necessary from start to finish. On balance, they conclude that the platform likely arose under a centralized authority, even if visible markers of elite life have yet to be found.
Which of the following, if true, most weakens the claim made in the passage that the platform on Island X was built under centralized authority?
- Tree-ring proxies from driftwood used in scaffolding indicate that timbers for the upper tiers were felled within the same eight-week window across multiple locations on the island.
- Experimental archaeology shows that forty people using wooden rollers can move a single coral block over level ground within a day.
- Optically stimulated luminescence dating of mortar between courses indicates that the three main terraces were constructed over at least seventy years, with multi-year intervals separating each episode of building. (correct answer)
- Isotopic analysis of human remains from a worker camp near the quarries reveals higher protein diets than those in village cemeteries, suggesting centralized provisioning.
- An early twentieth-century ethnographer recorded a neighboring island's chief distributing shell currency during communal construction of a meeting house.
Explanation: If the terraces were built over many decades with long pauses between episodes, the need for a single, continuous centralized authority to coordinate a compressed project is undermined. The other options either support centralized coordination or do not directly address the timeline and organization of construction.
Question 19
A cluster of islands in the western archipelago preserves a set of phonological innovations that set its dialects apart from both the ancestral language and their mainland cousins: unstressed vowels have systematically reduced to schwa, and complex consonant clusters have simplified into permissible CV syllables. Lacking contemporaneous grammars, scholars have pieced together a chronology from missionary word lists, port records, and inscriptions on trade weights. One hypothesis holds that these changes were driven by intense adult second-language acquisition during a seventeenth-century migration, when laborers speaking a regional trade lingua franca settled in the islands' port towns. Because adult learners often reshape phonotactics to fit their native templates, and because the lingua franca disfavored clusters and reduced unstressed vowels, the hypothesis posits that the migrants' accented speech propagated through the local population.
The hypothesis garners circumstantial support. Port settlements, where migrants plausibly concentrated, show the most extreme instances of reduction and cluster simplification; inland villages retain more conservative patterns. Lexical borrowings traceable to the lingua franca are more frequent in coastal speech. Moreover, the innovations appear to radiate outward along known trade routes, consistent with a coastal origin. Internal drift is not impossible—languages do spontaneously reorganize syllable structure—but the tight bundling of changes and their alignment with features of the contact variety suggest to proponents a contact-induced shift rather than a purely endogenous development.
Skeptics caution that the record is fragmentary and the timeline fuzzy. The earliest missionary lists are themselves copies, and port records can lag demographic reality by decades. Still, absent evidence to the contrary, the migration-era contact remains, in the author's view, the best explanation of the data we have: it accounts for the geographic distribution of the sound changes, their directionality, and their phonetic outcome in one coherent narrative.
Which of the following, if true, would most strongly weaken the author's claim that adult second-language acquisition associated with a seventeenth-century migration caused the phonological changes in the island dialects?
- A similar bundle of sound changes arose independently in an unrelated mainland language two centuries later.
- Coastal dialects exhibit more loanwords from the lingua franca than inland dialects do.
- The earliest securely dated inscriptions showing vowel reduction and cluster simplification predate the seventeenth-century migration by at least seventy years. (correct answer)
- The trade lingua franca lacked several vowel qualities that survive in the island dialects today.
- Oral histories on the islands emphasize continuity with ancestral practices rather than cultural disruption during the seventeenth century.
Explanation: If the changes are attested decades before the posited migration, the migration cannot be their cause. The other options either align with the contact hypothesis, are too general, or note differences that do not address the timing needed for causation.
Question 20
Responding to budget pressures and fluctuating demand, the Elm Street Museum plans to adopt dynamic pricing: tickets will be most expensive during weekend afternoons and holidays, cheaper on weekday mornings, and steeply discounted during late afternoons on school days. The director argues that the change will not reduce access for low-income visitors, noting two features. First, the new structure sets off-peak prices below current general admission, thus creating windows of greater affordability. Second, the museum will continue its donor-funded free days, now scheduled for one Sunday and one Thursday evening each month; online timed-entry reservations, the director says, will prevent hours-long lines and preserve dignity. Critics are unconvinced. They point out that many low-wage workers have rigid schedules that align with peak periods and that families with school-age children often prefer weekends. Moreover, the critics worry that if peak prices rise substantially, even occasional visits will become prohibitive for households with little discretionary income, especially if transportation and food costs are considered. The museum's internal memo emphasizes that net access depends on the full menu of options across the calendar, not on any single time slot; it adds that higher peak prices could stabilize finances and protect educational programming that benefits under-resourced schools. Yet the memo does not present detailed data on when low-income residents actually manage to visit museums or whether free days meet demand equitably. Nor does it engage with the possibility that online reservation systems, while efficient, may disadvantage those without reliable internet access or those who cannot plan weeks in advance. The director's conclusion—that dynamic pricing will not reduce access for low-income visitors—thus rests on assumptions about flexibility in low-income schedules and on the continued efficacy of free days to absorb demand without creating new barriers.
Which of the following, if true, most weakens the passage's claim that dynamic pricing will not reduce access for low-income visitors?
- Data from comparable museums show that off-peak tickets average 20 percent less than prior general admission prices.
- Major donors have signed multi-year commitments specifically underwriting the museum's monthly free days.
- The museum's cafe intends to adopt variable pricing for food and beverages aligned with ticket demand.
- Revenue from peak-hour tickets will be earmarked for expanded school outreach programs.
- Surveys of low-income residents indicate that they can typically visit only on weekends and holidays due to work and childcare schedules, when prices would be at the highest tier, and that free-day reservations reach capacity early each month and are rarely available to those who cannot book in advance. (correct answer)
Explanation: E shows that low-income visitors are concentrated in high-price periods and are effectively crowded out of free days, directly undermining the access claim. The other options either strengthen the claim or are tangential to whether low-income access declines.