All questions
Question 1
A protein with an isoelectric point (pI) of 7.2 contains a surface-exposed lysine residue (side chain pKa ~10.5). Which of the following mutations at this position would cause the largest decrease in the protein's overall pI?
- Lysine to Arginine (pKa ~12.5)
- Lysine to Alanine
- Lysine to Histidine (pKa ~6.0)
- Lysine to Glutamate (pKa ~4.1) (correct answer)
Explanation: The isoelectric point (pI) is the pH at which a protein has no net charge. To decrease the pI, we must increase the net negative charge or decrease the net positive charge. At physiological pH (~7), the initial lysine is positively charged (+1). (A) Lys to Arg changes one positive charge for another; pI change is minimal. (B) Lys to Ala changes a +1 charge to a 0 charge, a net change of -1, which decreases the pI. (C) Lys to His changes a +1 charge to a charge that is close to 0 at pH 7.2 (since pH > pKa), also a net change of about -1. (D) Lys to Glu changes a +1 charge to a -1 charge (since pH > pKa), a net change of -2. This is the most dramatic change and will cause the largest decrease in the pI.
Question 2
A mutation in the gene for a 60 kDa monomeric enzyme changes a codon from 5'-UGG-3' (Tryptophan) to 5'-UGA-3' (Stop). This mutation occurs at a position corresponding to amino acid 120 of the 500-amino acid wild-type protein. If lysates from cells expressing either the wild-type or mutant protein are analyzed by SDS-PAGE and Western blotting using an antibody that recognizes an epitope on the N-terminus, what is the expected result?
- The mutant protein will run at the same 60 kDa size as the wild-type because the mutation only affects function, not mass.
- No protein band will be detected for the mutant because the premature stop codon prevents translation initiation.
- The mutant protein will appear as a band at approximately 14.4 kDa, while the wild-type appears at 60 kDa. (correct answer)
- The mutant protein will appear as a band at approximately 45.6 kDa, while the wild-type appears at 60 kDa.
Explanation: A nonsense mutation (UGG to UGA) causes premature termination of translation. The resulting protein will be truncated. The wild-type protein is 500 amino acids long and 60 kDa. The mutation at amino acid 120 means the protein is terminated after residue 119. The approximate size of the truncated protein will be (120/500) * 60 kDa = 14.4 kDa. Since the antibody recognizes the N-terminus, this truncated fragment will be detected. (A) is incorrect because truncation significantly changes the mass. (B) is incorrect because translation initiates normally but terminates early. (D) calculates the size of the portion that is not translated (380/500 * 60 kDa), which is incorrect.
Question 3
The formation of 8-oxoguanine (8-oxoG) from guanine is a common form of oxidative DNA damage. During replication, DNA polymerase frequently mispairs 8-oxoG with adenine. If this 8-oxoG-A mispair is not corrected and the DNA undergoes one more round of replication, what type of mutation will be fixed in the genome?
- A G-C to A-T transition.
- A G-C to T-A transversion. (correct answer)
- A G-C to C-G transversion.
- The deletion of the original G-C base pair.
Explanation: The sequence of events is: 1) The original pair is G-C. 2) Damage creates an 8-oxoG-C pair. 3) In the first replication, 8-oxoG incorrectly pairs with A, creating an 8-oxoG-A pair in one daughter duplex. 4) In the next replication, the A in this pair correctly templates a T. The final result in this lineage is a T-A pair. The original G (a purine) has effectively been replaced by a T (a pyrimidine) on that strand. This change from a purine-pyrimidine pair (G-C) to a pyrimidine-purine pair (T-A) is defined as a transversion. (A) is incorrect because a transition is a purine-for-purine or pyrimidine-for-pyrimidine swap. (C) and (D) describe different mutational events.
Question 4
A mutation in a gene replaces a surface-exposed leucine residue with an isoleucine residue. Both amino acids are nonpolar and have branched aliphatic side chains. What is the most probable outcome of this specific mutation on the protein's structure and function?
- Complete denaturation of the protein due to the disruption of critical hydrophobic interactions.
- A significant change in the protein's isoelectric point (pI) due to the altered side chain.
- The formation of an improper disulfide bond that leads to protein aggregation.
- A minimal effect on the protein's tertiary structure and biological activity. (correct answer)
Explanation: When analyzing how amino acid substitutions affect protein structure, you need to consider the chemical properties of both the original and replacement residues, as well as their location in the protein.
Leucine and isoleucine are remarkably similar amino acids. Both are nonpolar, hydrophobic, and contain branched aliphatic side chains. The key difference is that leucine has a slightly longer, more flexible side chain, while isoleucine is slightly more compact and rigid. Since this mutation occurs at a surface-exposed position (where hydrophobic residues typically have minimal structural roles), the substitution is unlikely to significantly disrupt the protein's overall fold or function.
Option A is incorrect because complete denaturation would require disruption of major stabilizing forces throughout the protein. A single conservative substitution on the surface cannot cause such dramatic destabilization. Option B is wrong because both leucine and isoleucine are neutral, nonpolar amino acids that don't contribute to the protein's overall charge, so the isoelectric point remains unchanged. Option C is incorrect because neither leucine nor isoleucine contains sulfur atoms, so this mutation cannot affect disulfide bond formation, which only involves cysteine residues.
Option D is correct because this represents a conservative substitution between chemically similar residues in a location where structural constraints are minimal. The slight differences in side chain geometry are unlikely to significantly impact protein stability or function.
Remember: conservative mutations between chemically similar amino acids, especially at surface positions, typically have minimal functional consequences. Focus on the chemical properties and structural location when predicting mutation effects.
Question 5
A regulatory protein is activated by phosphorylation via a specific protein kinase on Serine-212. A mutation in the gene for this protein changes the codon for Serine-212 to a codon for Alanine. How will this mutation most likely affect the regulation of the downstream signaling pathway?
- The protein will become constitutively active because alanine is structurally similar to serine.
- The protein will be unable to be phosphorylated and thus cannot be activated by the kinase. (correct answer)
- The protein kinase will phosphorylate a nearby threonine residue as a compensatory mechanism.
- The protein will be targeted for immediate ubiquitination and degradation due to the mutation.
Explanation: Phosphorylation occurs on the hydroxyl group of serine, threonine, or tyrosine. Alanine lacks this hydroxyl group and therefore cannot be phosphorylated. Since phosphorylation at this specific site is required for activation, the mutant protein can no longer be switched 'on' by the kinase. This results in a loss of function and a block in the signaling pathway. (A) is incorrect; alanine is small and nonpolar, and does not mimic the bulky, negatively charged phosphoserine group required for the active conformation. (C) is a remote possibility but not the direct and most likely consequence; kinases are highly specific for their target sequences. (D) is incorrect; a single, non-destabilizing amino acid substitution is not typically a signal for immediate degradation.
Question 6
A single nucleotide polymorphism results in the substitution of a valine residue with an aspartate residue. This valine is known to be located in the protein's hydrophobic core, distant from any active or allosteric sites. What is the most probable biochemical consequence of this mutation?
- Increased protein stability due to the formation of new internal salt bridges with the aspartate.
- A frameshift in the mRNA, leading to a completely different C-terminal amino acid sequence.
- Decreased protein stability due to the introduction of a charged side chain into a nonpolar environment. (correct answer)
- No significant change in protein structure or function, as it is a single amino acid substitution.
Explanation: The primary consequence is a significant decrease in protein stability. The hydrophobic core of a protein is an energetically favorable environment for nonpolar side chains like valine. Introducing a negatively charged side chain like aspartate into this nonpolar environment is highly unfavorable and disrupts the hydrophobic effect, destabilizing the protein's tertiary structure. (A) is incorrect because an internal salt bridge requires a partner with an opposite charge in a suitable position, which is unlikely, and the hydrophobic environment would weaken any such interaction. (B) is incorrect as a substitution results from a missense mutation, not a frameshift, which is caused by an insertion or deletion. (D) is incorrect because this is a non-conservative substitution (nonpolar to charged) in a structurally critical region, which is likely to have a significant impact.
Question 7
A G-to-A transition occurs in the third position of a leucine codon, changing it from 5'-CUU-3' to 5'-CUA-3'. Both codons specify leucine. While this is classified as a silent mutation, under which of the following circumstances could it still lead to a significantly reduced level of functional protein?
- If the CUA codon is recognized by a much rarer tRNA species than the CUU codon in that organism. (correct answer)
- If the change alters the pKa of the leucine residue, disrupting the protein's active site chemistry.
- If the mutation prevents the ribosome from properly recognizing the AUG start codon.
- If the new CUA codon creates a premature stop signal, resulting in a truncated, nonfunctional polypeptide.
Explanation: Even though the amino acid sequence is unchanged, the efficiency of translation can be affected by codon usage bias. If the new codon (CUA) is much rarer than the original codon (CUU), the corresponding tRNA will be less abundant. This can cause the ribosome to stall at that position, slowing down translation and potentially leading to premature termination or mRNA degradation, thus reducing the yield of full-length functional protein. (B) is incorrect because the amino acid is still leucine, so its chemical properties are unchanged. (C) is incorrect because the mutation is internal to the coding sequence, not at the start codon. (D) is incorrect because CUA is a codon for leucine, not a stop codon.
Question 8
An enzyme's catalytic mechanism requires a histidine residue in the active site to act as a general base. A site-directed mutagenesis experiment replaces this histidine with a phenylalanine. How will this mutation most likely affect the enzyme's kinetic parameters, Vmax and Km?
- A significant increase in Km with little to no change in the catalytic rate (kcat).
- A significant decrease in the catalytic rate (kcat) with little to no change in Km. (correct answer)
- A proportional decrease in both kcat and Km, leaving the catalytic efficiency unchanged.
- A significant increase in kcat because phenylalanine enhances hydrophobic interactions with the substrate.
Explanation: The histidine is essential for the chemical step of the reaction (catalysis). Replacing it with phenylalanine, which cannot perform acid-base catalysis, will drastically reduce the rate of product formation. This is reflected as a large decrease in kcat (and therefore Vmax). Since the mutation is at the catalytic part of the active site and not necessarily the primary substrate binding pocket, the affinity for the substrate (reflected by Km) may not change significantly. Therefore, kcat will decrease while Km remains relatively constant. (A) is incorrect; this pattern suggests impaired binding but normal catalysis. (C) is incorrect because catalytic efficiency (kcat/Km) will decrease dramatically. (D) is incorrect because phenylalanine's inability to perform catalysis will override any minor effects from hydrophobicity, leading to a much slower, not faster, reaction.
Question 9
A point mutation occurs in the highly conserved GT dinucleotide sequence at the 5' splice site of an intron within a eukaryotic gene. What is the most probable consequence of this mutation on the final gene product?
- The mutation will likely be silent because it is located within a non-coding intron sequence.
- The rate of transcription will be significantly reduced due to impaired RNA polymerase binding.
- The intron will fail to be spliced out, leading to its inclusion in the mature mRNA and a defective protein. (correct answer)
- A single amino acid will be substituted in the final protein, as the spliceosome can bypass the error.
Explanation: The 5' splice site (typically a GU sequence in RNA, which is GT in the coding DNA strand) is a critical recognition signal for the spliceosome. A mutation in this sequence will prevent the spliceosome from correctly identifying the intron-exon boundary. The most likely result is 'exon skipping' or, more commonly, 'intron retention,' where the intron is not removed. This retained intron sequence in the mature mRNA will almost certainly introduce a frameshift and/or a premature stop codon, leading to a non-functional or truncated protein. (A) is incorrect because splice sites, though in introns, are functionally critical. (B) is incorrect because splice sites are involved in post-transcriptional processing, not transcription initiation. (D) is incorrect because the spliceosome recognizes these sites; it does not 'bypass' errors, and the result is a major processing defect, not a simple substitution.
Question 10
A homodimeric protein is stabilized by a critical salt bridge formed between an aspartate residue on one subunit and a lysine residue on the other. A missense mutation changes this aspartate to an asparagine. What is the most likely effect on the protein's biochemistry?
- The dimer will be further stabilized by a new, stronger hydrogen bond between asparagine and lysine.
- The individual monomers will be unable to fold correctly, leading to widespread protein aggregation.
- There will be no significant effect on quaternary structure, as asparagine can still form a polar contact.
- The equilibrium will shift from the dimeric form to the monomeric form, likely causing a loss of function. (correct answer)
Explanation: When analyzing protein quaternary structure problems, focus on how specific interactions between subunits maintain the overall complex. Salt bridges are particularly important electrostatic interactions that form between oppositely charged residues, providing significant stabilization energy for protein assemblies.
The aspartate-to-asparagine mutation eliminates the negative charge that was forming the critical salt bridge with lysine's positive charge. Without this electrostatic attraction, the primary force holding the two subunits together is lost. While asparagine can form hydrogen bonds, these are much weaker than salt bridges and insufficient to maintain the dimeric structure. The equilibrium will therefore shift toward the monomeric form, and since many proteins require their quaternary structure for function, this typically results in loss of biological activity.
Option A is incorrect because hydrogen bonds between asparagine and lysine are significantly weaker than the original salt bridge, making the dimer less stable, not more. Option B overstates the effect—the mutation affects quaternary structure but shouldn't prevent proper monomer folding, as the change is at the dimer interface, not within the folding core of individual subunits. Option C underestimates the importance of charge complementarity in salt bridges; while asparagine can form polar contacts, it cannot replace the strong electrostatic interaction that stabilized the original dimer.
Remember that salt bridges are among the strongest non-covalent interactions in proteins. When analyzing mutations affecting quaternary structure, always consider whether the change disrupts critical stabilizing forces between subunits.
Question 11
Spontaneous deamination of cytosine in a DNA molecule produces uracil. If this damage is not repaired and the DNA undergoes two full rounds of replication, what will be the ultimate mutational outcome in the sequence of one of the final DNA molecules?
- A C-G to G-C transversion.
- A C-G to T-A transition. (correct answer)
- The deletion of the original C-G base pair.
- The insertion of a new U-A base pair into the DNA.
Explanation: The process is as follows: 1) The original pair is C-G. 2) Deamination changes C to U, so the pair becomes U-G. 3) In the first round of replication, the strand with G templates a new C, restoring the wild-type sequence in one daughter molecule. The strand with U templates a new A, creating a U-A pair in the other daughter molecule. 4) In the second round of replication, the U-A pair serves as a template. The U strand templates an A, and the A strand templates a T. This fixes the mutation as a T-A base pair in the DNA. Therefore, the original C-G pair has become a T-A pair. This is a transition mutation (pyrimidine C to pyrimidine T).
Question 12
A gene initially acquires a single base insertion at codon 15. A subsequent event causes a single base deletion at codon 30 in this same gene. How will the protein translated from this double-mutant gene most likely compare to the wild-type protein?
- The protein will have the correct N-terminus and C-terminus, but an altered sequence of about 15 amino acids in the middle. (correct answer)
- The protein will be identical to the wild-type, as the insertion and deletion perfectly cancel each other.
- The protein will be truncated after approximately 15 amino acids due to the frameshift.
- The protein will have its first 15 amino acids correct, but the entire remaining sequence will be altered.
Explanation: When analyzing frameshift mutations, you need to track how insertions and deletions affect the reading frame and where normal translation can resume.
Let's trace what happens: The insertion at codon 15 shifts the reading frame by +1, causing all subsequent codons to be read incorrectly. This continues until codon 30, where the deletion shifts the frame by -1. Since +1 and -1 cancel out, the reading frame returns to normal after codon 30, allowing correct translation to resume for the remainder of the protein.
The result is a protein with three distinct regions: codons 1-14 remain correct (before the insertion), codons 15-29 are completely altered due to the frameshift, and codons 30 onward return to the wild-type sequence. This creates an altered stretch of about 15 amino acids in the middle while preserving both termini.
Option B is incorrect because while the reading frames mathematically cancel out, the amino acid sequence between the mutations is still scrambled. Option C assumes the insertion creates a premature stop codon, but this isn't guaranteed—frameshift mutations don't always immediately generate stop codons. Option D reflects what would happen with only the insertion and no compensating deletion, where the frameshift would persist throughout the entire remaining sequence.
Study tip: For double frameshift questions, remember that compensating mutations can restore the reading frame downstream. Draw out the codons if needed—the key is identifying where normal reading resumes, not just whether the math works out.
Question 13
Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1) is allosterically inhibited by high concentrations of ATP, which binds to a regulatory site distinct from the active site. A mutation in the PFK-1 gene replaces a key arginine in this allosteric site with a valine. How would this mutation most likely affect PFK-1 activity under conditions of high cellular ATP?
- The enzyme would have a much lower Vmax because ATP binding is cooperative for catalysis.
- The enzyme's activity would be higher than the wild-type enzyme because allosteric inhibition is relieved. (correct answer)
- The enzyme would be completely inactive because the mutation disrupts the overall protein structure.
- The enzyme would show normal regulation, as valine can substitute for arginine in binding ATP.
Explanation: The positively charged arginine in the allosteric site is crucial for binding the negatively charged phosphate groups of the inhibitor, ATP. Replacing it with the nonpolar valine will severely weaken or abolish ATP binding at this regulatory site. Consequently, the enzyme will no longer be effectively inhibited by high ATP levels. It will remain active, leading to higher glycolytic flux than would be seen with the wild-type enzyme under the same high-ATP conditions. (A) is incorrect; it confuses the inhibitory allosteric site with the substrate ATP binding site. (C) is unlikely as a single point mutation in an external regulatory site usually doesn't cause complete misfolding. (D) is incorrect; valine's properties are completely different from arginine's, and it cannot substitute for it in binding ATP.
Question 14
The mutation responsible for sickle-cell anemia is a Glu→Val substitution on the surface of β-globin. Which statement provides the most accurate biochemical explanation for the polymerization of deoxygenated hemoglobin S (HbS)?
- The surface valine on one deoxygenated HbS molecule inserts into a complementary hydrophobic pocket on an adjacent HbS molecule. (correct answer)
- The valine residue forms a covalent disulfide bond with an adjacent HbS molecule, leading to irreversible aggregation.
- The loss of glutamate's negative charge causes hemoglobin tetramers to aggregate through nonspecific electrostatic repulsion.
- The Glu→Val substitution disrupts a critical salt bridge, causing the entire tetramer to unfold and expose its hydrophobic core.
Explanation: When you encounter questions about protein mutations and disease, focus on how amino acid substitutions affect protein structure and intermolecular interactions. Sickle-cell anemia results from a single amino acid change that dramatically alters hemoglobin's behavior in its deoxygenated state.
The Glu→Val substitution creates a "sticky patch" on the surface of deoxygenated hemoglobin S. The valine residue, being hydrophobic, can insert into a complementary hydrophobic region on another HbS molecule, forming protein-protein interactions that lead to the characteristic long, rigid polymers. This polymerization only occurs significantly in the deoxygenated (T) state because the conformational change exposes the hydrophobic binding sites. Answer A correctly describes this hydrophobic patch mechanism.
Answer B is wrong because valine cannot form disulfide bonds—only cysteine residues can form these covalent sulfur-sulfur linkages. Answer C contains a logical error: losing glutamate's negative charge would reduce electrostatic repulsion, not increase it, and the aggregation is actually due to specific hydrophobic interactions, not electrostatic effects. Answer D incorrectly suggests the tetramer unfolds; while the mutation does affect protein interactions, it doesn't cause global unfolding of the hemoglobin structure.
Remember that single amino acid substitutions rarely cause complete protein unfolding but instead often create new interaction sites or disrupt existing ones. For sickle-cell anemia specifically, focus on the hydrophobic nature of the substitution and how it creates abnormal protein-protein contacts in the deoxygenated state.
Question 15
A single base-pair deletion occurs within the second exon of a gene encoding a 400-amino acid cytosolic protein. Which of the following outcomes is the most likely consequence of this mutation?
- The protein will be produced with one amino acid missing, but its overall structure will remain intact.
- The protein will be translated correctly but will fail to be transported into the correct cellular compartment.
- The protein will have a completely altered amino acid sequence downstream of the deletion, likely with premature termination. (correct answer)
- The protein's primary sequence will be unchanged, but its rate of synthesis will be significantly reduced.
Explanation: A single base-pair deletion causes a frameshift mutation. This alters the three-base codon reading frame for all subsequent codons. The result is a completely different amino acid sequence from the point of the deletion onwards. This scrambled sequence will almost invariably lead to a premature stop codon being generated within a short distance, resulting in a truncated and nonfunctional protein. (A) describes the result of a 3-base deletion, not a single base deletion. (B) is incorrect as frameshifts affect the primary sequence, not typically trafficking signals in this direct manner. (D) is incorrect because the primary sequence is profoundly affected, which is a more direct consequence than synthesis rate.
Question 16
A point mutation in the coding sequence of a gene changes codon 45 from GAG to GUG. Analysis of the resulting protein shows that it retains approximately 60% of its normal enzymatic activity but has altered thermal stability. Which of the following best explains this observation?
- The mutation is silent because both codons encode hydrophobic amino acids with similar chemical properties
- The substitution of glutamic acid with valine changes the local charge distribution while maintaining partial protein function (correct answer)
- The mutation creates a premature stop codon that results in a truncated protein with reduced activity
- The change from a polar to nonpolar amino acid disrupts hydrogen bonding networks critical for enzyme catalysis
Explanation: GAG codes for glutamic acid (negatively charged) and GUG codes for valine (nonpolar, hydrophobic). This substitution changes the local charge distribution and likely affects protein folding/stability, explaining the altered thermal stability and partial loss of function. Choice A is wrong because glutamic acid is charged, not hydrophobic. Choice C is wrong because neither codon is a stop codon. Choice D is partially correct about the polar to nonpolar change but overstates the effect - the protein retains significant activity.
Question 17
A patient has a hereditary disorder caused by a nonsense mutation in exon 8 of a 12-exon gene. Despite the premature stop codon, Western blot analysis reveals the presence of a protein that is slightly smaller than normal but retains partial function. Which molecular mechanism most likely explains this observation?
- Alternative splicing removes the exon containing the nonsense mutation, allowing production of a functional isoform (correct answer)
- Ribosomal readthrough of the stop codon occurs with low efficiency, producing some full-length protein
- The nonsense mutation activates a cryptic promoter downstream, initiating translation from an internal methionine
- Post-translational modification compensates for the missing amino acids by stabilizing the truncated protein structure
Explanation: Alternative splicing can skip the exon containing the nonsense mutation, maintaining the reading frame and producing a shorter but functional protein. This explains both the smaller size and retained partial function. Choice B would produce full-length protein, not smaller. Choice C would require a new start codon and wouldn't explain partial function of a C-terminally truncated protein. Choice D doesn't explain how a truncated protein could be functional.
Question 18
Examine the DNA sequences below representing the wild-type and mutant versions of a gene segment. Based on the genetic code and the nature of the mutation, what is the most significant molecular consequence?
Wild-type: 5'-CTGAAGCTGTAC-3'
Mutant: 5'-CTGAACCTGTAC-3'
- A conservative amino acid substitution that maintains protein structure and function through similar chemical properties
- Introduction of a premature termination signal that truncates the protein and eliminates downstream domains
- A radical amino acid change that disrupts protein folding due to incompatible side chain characteristics (correct answer)
- A silent mutation that changes the nucleotide sequence without affecting the amino acid composition of the protein
Explanation: When analyzing DNA mutations, you need to translate both sequences to determine how the amino acid sequence changes and assess the biochemical impact of any substitutions.
Let's translate both sequences using the genetic code. The wild-type sequence 5'-CTGAAGCTGTAC-3' codes for Leu-Lys-Leu-Tyr, while the mutant sequence 5'-CTGAACCTGTAC-3' codes for Leu-Asn-Leu-Tyr. The single nucleotide change (G→C) converts the second codon from AAG (lysine) to AAC (asparagine).
This represents a dramatic chemical change. Lysine is a positively charged, basic amino acid with a long aliphatic side chain ending in an amino group. Asparagine is a polar, uncharged amino acid with an amide group. This charge difference (+1 to 0) fundamentally alters the local electrostatic environment and can disrupt protein folding, stability, and function—making answer C correct.
Answer A is wrong because this substitution isn't conservative; lysine and asparagine have completely different chemical properties. Answer B is incorrect because neither codon (AAG or AAC) represents a stop codon—both code for amino acids, so no premature termination occurs. Answer D is wrong because this isn't a silent mutation; the amino acid sequence clearly changes from lysine to asparagine.
Study tip: Always translate DNA sequences completely and compare the chemical properties of substituted amino acids. Remember that charge changes (basic/acidic ↔ polar/nonpolar) typically represent radical, non-conservative substitutions that significantly impact protein structure and function.
Question 19
A point mutation in the splice donor site of intron 5 changes the conserved GT dinucleotide to AT. RNA analysis shows that this mutation leads to retention of intron 5 in the mature mRNA. What is the most likely consequence for the resulting protein?
- The protein will have an insertion of amino acids corresponding to the retained intron sequence, likely disrupting function
- The protein will have altered post-translational modifications due to the disrupted exon-intron boundaries
- The protein will be identical to wild-type because the retained intron will be removed during translation
- The protein will be truncated because the retained intron contains multiple stop codons in all reading frames (correct answer)
Explanation: When analyzing splice site mutations, you need to consider what happens when normal pre-mRNA processing is disrupted. The GT dinucleotide at the 5' splice site (donor site) is absolutely conserved and essential for proper intron removal by the spliceosome.
The GT→AT mutation prevents the spliceosome from recognizing the normal splice donor site, so intron 5 remains in the mature mRNA. This retained intron becomes part of the coding sequence that gets translated. Here's the critical insight: introns are non-coding sequences that weren't designed to be translated, so they typically contain stop codons (UAG, UAA, UGA) in all three reading frames. When the ribosome encounters these premature stop codons during translation, protein synthesis terminates early, producing a truncated protein. This makes answer D correct.
Answer A incorrectly assumes the entire intron would be translated into amino acids, but translation stops at the first stop codon encountered. Answer B focuses on post-translational modifications, which is irrelevant since the primary issue is premature translation termination due to stop codons in the retained intron. Answer C reflects a fundamental misunderstanding—introns are removed during RNA processing (splicing), not during translation, and this mutation prevents that removal.
For splice site questions, remember this pattern: mutations that disrupt splicing often lead to retained introns, and retained introns usually contain stop codons that truncate the protein. Always consider whether the abnormal sequence would actually be translatable before assuming it becomes part of the final protein.
Question 20
A research team is studying a gene that encodes a 450-amino acid protein involved in DNA repair. They have identified several mutations in patients with increased cancer susceptibility and are analyzing the molecular consequences of each mutation type.
Patient A has a single nucleotide insertion at position 200 of the coding sequence, Patient B has a point mutation changing a serine codon to a stop codon at position 300, and Patient C has a large deletion removing exons 4-6 (which encode amino acids 150-250). Which patient would most likely benefit from a therapeutic approach aimed at promoting nonsense-mediated mRNA decay (NMD) to reduce production of potentially harmful truncated proteins?
- Patient A only, because the frameshift mutation will produce the most aberrant protein sequence downstream of the insertion
- Patient B only, because the nonsense mutation creates a premature termination codon that is the primary target for NMD
- Patients A and B, because both mutations result in premature stop codons that would trigger the NMD pathway (correct answer)
- Patient C only, because the large deletion removes essential protein domains and creates the most dysfunctional protein product
Explanation: Both Patient A (frameshift from insertion) and Patient B (nonsense mutation) will have premature termination codons that make their mRNAs targets for NMD. The frameshift in Patient A will likely create a stop codon shortly downstream of position 200. Patient B has a direct nonsense mutation. Both would benefit from NMD activation to prevent translation of truncated proteins. Patient C has an in-frame deletion that removes amino acids but doesn't create premature stop codons, so NMD wouldn't be triggered and the strategy wouldn't apply.