What this quiz covers
This quiz focuses on Public Company Reporting Requirements, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for CPA Financial Accounting and Reporting Far.
A U.S. public company must file a Form 8-K with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) to report significant corporate events. Which of the following events would most likely trigger the requirement to file a Form 8-K?
CPA Financial Accounting and Reporting Far Quiz
Practice Public Company Reporting Requirements in CPA Financial Accounting and Reporting Far with focused quiz questions that help you check what you know, review explanations, and build confidence with test-style prompts.
This quiz focuses on Public Company Reporting Requirements, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for CPA Financial Accounting and Reporting Far.
Try each quiz question before looking at the correct answer. Use the explanations to review missed ideas, then come back to similar questions until the pattern feels familiar.
A U.S. public company must file a Form 8-K with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) to report significant corporate events. Which of the following events would most likely trigger the requirement to file a Form 8-K?
Explanation: The correct answer is B. SEC regulations require the filing of Form 8-K for specific material events. The appointment of a new director, other than at an annual meeting of shareholders, is a specified event under Item 5.02 of Form 8-K. The other events are generally not considered triggering events for an 8-K filing. Routine dividend declarations, signing contracts in the ordinary course of business, and minor plan amendments do not typically require an 8-K filing.
A U.S. public company must file a Form 8-K with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) to report significant corporate events. Which of the following events would most likely trigger the requirement to file a Form 8-K?
Explanation: The correct answer is B. SEC regulations require the filing of Form 8-K for specific material events. The appointment of a new director, other than at an annual meeting of shareholders, is a specified event under Item 5.02 of Form 8-K. The other events are generally not considered triggering events for an 8-K filing. Routine dividend declarations, signing contracts in the ordinary course of business, and minor plan amendments do not typically require an 8-K filing.
TechFlow Inc., a publicly traded company, has 10 million shares of common stock outstanding. During the fourth quarter, TechFlow granted 500,000 employee stock options with an exercise price of $25 per share when the stock was trading at $30. The options vest in three years. For basic earnings per share calculation purposes, TechFlow reported net income of $15 million for the quarter. The average stock price during the quarter was $28, and the quarter-end stock price was $32. What is the diluted earnings per share for the quarter?
Explanation: For diluted EPS, use the treasury stock method for stock options. Since the average stock price (28)exceedstheexerciseprice(25), the options are dilutive. Calculate incremental shares: 500,000 options × ($28 - $25) ÷ $28 = 500,000 × $3 ÷ $28 = 53,571 incremental shares. Diluted shares = 10,000,000 + 53,571 = 10,053,571. Diluted EPS = $15,000,000 ÷ 10,053,571 = $1.46. Choice B incorrectly uses the quarter-end price instead of average price. Choice C ignores the dilutive effect entirely (basic EPS). Choice D incorrectly calculates the treasury stock method by using all 500,000 options as dilutive without the treasury stock adjustment.
NovaTech has 5 million shares of common stock outstanding and reported net income of $18 million for the quarter ended September 30, 2024. During the quarter, NovaTech had the following potentially dilutive securities: (1) 300,000 warrants to purchase common stock at $40 per share, (2) 100,000 shares of convertible preferred stock that pays $2 per share annual dividends and converts to 2.5 shares of common stock per preferred share. The average stock price during the quarter was $45, and $150,000 of preferred dividends were declared for the quarter. Calculate the diluted earnings per share.
Explanation: Basic EPS = ($18M - $0.15M) ÷ 5M = 3.57.FordilutedEPS,applytreasurystockmethodtowarrants:300,000×(45 - $40) ÷ $45 = 33,333 incremental shares. For convertible preferred: add back 150,000dividendstonumeratorandadd250,000shares(100,000×2.5)todenominator.DilutedEPS=(18M - $0.15M + $0.15M) ÷ (5M + 33,333 + 250,000) = $18M ÷ 5,283,333 = $3.38. Choice A incorrectly ignores the warrant dilution. Choice B makes an error in the treasury stock method calculation. Choice D ignores both dilutive effects and miscalculates basic EPS.
GlobalTech, a public company, has the following securities outstanding during 2024: 8 million shares of common stock, 200,000 shares of 6% cumulative preferred stock ($100 par, convertible into 4 shares of common stock per preferred share), and $50 million of 4% convertible bonds (convertible into 25 shares of common stock per $1,000 bond). Net income for 2024 was $24 million, and preferred dividends of $1.2 million were declared and paid. The average income tax rate is 25%. What is the diluted earnings per share assuming all potentially dilutive securities should be included?
Explanation: First calculate basic EPS: ($24M - $1.2M) ÷ 8M = $2.85. For diluted EPS, test each security: Convertible preferred: adds $1.2M to numerator and 800,000 shares (200,000 × 4) to denominator. Convertible bonds: adds 1.5Mafter−taxinterest(50M × 4% × 75%) to numerator and 1,250,000 shares (50,000 bonds × 25) to denominator. Diluted EPS = ($22.8M + $1.2M + $1.5M) ÷ (8M + 800,000 + 1,250,000) = $25.5M ÷ 11.05M = 2.31.ChoiceAincorrectlyomitsthepreferreddividendadd−back.ChoiceCisbasicEPS.ChoiceDincorrectlycalculatestheafter−taxinterestonbonds(2M instead of $1.5M).
CyberSecure Inc. made a decision on May 20, 2024, to discontinue its cloud services division, which represented 12% of total company revenue in Q1 2024. The division had been operating during Q1 2024, and CyberSecure's Q1 Form 10-Q was filed on May 10, 2024, before the discontinuation decision. Management estimates that discontinuing the division will result in $4.5 million in severance costs and $2.8 million in facility closure costs. How should CyberSecure account for this discontinuation in its Q2 2024 financial statements?
Explanation: Under ASC 205-20, discontinued operations presentation is required when management commits to a disposal plan. Since the disposal decision was made in Q2, the Q2 financial statements should present the cloud services division as discontinued operations and reclassify Q1 comparative results. Exit costs are recognized when the plan is committed to (Q2), not when the operations occurred (Q1) or when costs are actually paid (Q4). Choice A is incorrect because discontinued operations criteria weren't met in Q1. Choice C is incorrect because discontinued operations presentation requires prior period reclassification, not just disclosure. Choice D incorrectly defers exit cost recognition beyond the commitment date.
Phoenix Dynamics reported the following for the year ended December 31, 2024: Net income of $45 million, weighted average common shares outstanding of 12 million, and weighted average common shares assuming dilution of 13.2 million. During 2024, Phoenix had 500,000 shares of $5 cumulative convertible preferred stock outstanding (par value $50, convertible into 2 common shares per preferred share). Preferred dividends of $2.5 million were declared and paid. If Phoenix's diluted EPS was $3.30, what was the basic earnings per share?
Explanation: When you encounter EPS calculations with convertible securities, you need to understand the relationship between basic and diluted EPS. Basic EPS uses actual shares outstanding and net income available to common shareholders, while diluted EPS assumes conversion of all dilutive securities. To find basic EPS, start with the information given. You know diluted EPS is $3.30 and diluted shares are 13.2 million, so diluted earnings available to common shareholders equals 3.30×13.2=43.56 million. For diluted EPS calculations involving convertible preferred stock, you add back the preferred dividends that wouldn't be paid if the preferred shares converted to common stock. Since the preferred dividends were $2.5 million, the net income available to common shareholders for basic EPS is 43.56−2.5=41.06 million. Therefore, basic EPS equals 1241.06=3.42 million. Wait—this doesn't match the given options exactly, so let me recalculate using the relationship directly. Actually, we can work backwards: if diluted earnings include the $2.5 million preferred dividends added back, then basic earnings exclude them. Basic EPS = 1245−2.5=1242.5=3.54 Answer choice A ($3.58) incorrectly adds rather than subtracts preferred dividends. Choice B ($3.75) fails to account for preferred dividends entirely. Choice C ($3.33) makes an error in the dividend calculation. Remember: Basic EPS always reduces net income by preferred dividends, while diluted EPS adds them back when assuming conversion of the preferred shares.
A company is classified as a 'large accelerated filer' by the SEC. What is the deadline for this company to file its annual report on Form 10-K with the SEC after its fiscal year-end?
Explanation: The correct answer is B. A large accelerated filer, which is a company with a public float of $700 million or more, is required to file its Form 10-K within 60 days after its fiscal year-end. Choice C (75 days) is the deadline for an accelerated filer. Choice D (90 days) is the deadline for a non-accelerated filer. Choice A (45 days) is the deadline for filing a quarterly report on Form 10-Q for all filer types except non-accelerated filers in their first year.
What is a primary distinction between the financial statements included in a public company's quarterly report on Form 10-Q and its annual report on Form 10-K?
Explanation: The correct answer is B. The annual financial statements in a Form 10-K must be audited by an independent registered public accounting firm. In contrast, the interim financial statements included in a Form 10-Q are not required to be audited but must be reviewed by an independent auditor. Both reports use accrual basis accounting, must include a full set of condensed financial statements (though 10-Q is condensed), and both are required filings with the SEC.
Regulation S-K, established by the SEC, provides disclosure requirements for public companies. What type of information does Regulation S-K primarily govern?
Explanation: The correct answer is D. Regulation S-K sets forth the standard instructions for filing non-financial statement information in registration statements and periodic reports, such as the Form 10-K. It covers qualitative disclosures like MD&A, risk factors, legal proceedings, and executive compensation. Regulation S-X governs the form and content of financial statements (Choice A). FASB sets U.S. GAAP (Choice B). The PCAOB sets auditing standards for public companies (Choice C).
A company is classified as a 'large accelerated filer' by the SEC. What is the deadline for this company to file its annual report on Form 10-K with the SEC after its fiscal year-end?
Explanation: The correct answer is B. A large accelerated filer, which is a company with a public float of $700 million or more, is required to file its Form 10-K within 60 days after its fiscal year-end. Choice C (75 days) is the deadline for an accelerated filer. Choice D (90 days) is the deadline for a non-accelerated filer. Choice A (45 days) is the deadline for filing a quarterly report on Form 10-Q for all filer types except non-accelerated filers in their first year.
What is a primary distinction between the financial statements included in a public company's quarterly report on Form 10-Q and its annual report on Form 10-K?
Explanation: The correct answer is B. The annual financial statements in a Form 10-K must be audited by an independent registered public accounting firm. In contrast, the interim financial statements included in a Form 10-Q are not required to be audited but must be reviewed by an independent auditor. Both reports use accrual basis accounting, must include a full set of condensed financial statements (though 10-Q is condensed), and both are required filings with the SEC.
Regulation S-K, established by the SEC, provides disclosure requirements for public companies. What type of information does Regulation S-K primarily govern?
Explanation: The correct answer is D. Regulation S-K sets forth the standard instructions for filing non-financial statement information in registration statements and periodic reports, such as the Form 10-K. It covers qualitative disclosures like MD&A, risk factors, legal proceedings, and executive compensation. Regulation S-X governs the form and content of financial statements (Choice A). FASB sets U.S. GAAP (Choice B). The PCAOB sets auditing standards for public companies (Choice C).