USMLE Step 3 Quiz: Substance Use Disorder Continuity Care

What this quiz covers

This quiz focuses on Substance Use Disorder Continuity Care, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for USMLE Step 3.

How to use this quiz

Try each quiz question before looking at the correct answer. Use the explanations to review missed ideas, then come back to similar questions until the pattern feels familiar.

Question 1

1. Co-prescribing naloxone rescue kits and providing education on their use. (correct answer)
2. Increasing the frequency of urine drug screening from annually to quarterly.
3. Requiring all patients to sign an updated pain management agreement.
4. Implementing a mandatory, clinic-wide benzodiazepine tapering protocol.

Explanation: When you encounter questions about opioid safety, particularly involving high-risk combinations, focus on interventions with the strongest evidence for preventing fatal outcomes. The combination of long-term opioids with benzodiazepines creates an exponentially higher risk of respiratory depression and overdose death compared to either medication alone. Naloxone co-prescribing (A) represents the most critical intervention because it directly addresses the mechanism of opioid overdose death. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that can reverse respiratory depression, the primary cause of fatal overdose. Current CDC guidelines specifically recommend naloxone for patients on high-dose opioids, those with concurrent benzodiazepine use, or those with overdose risk factors. This intervention has robust evidence for reducing overdose mortality and provides an immediate life-saving tool for patients and their families. Increased urine drug screening (B) may help monitor compliance but doesn't directly prevent overdose deaths. Quarterly screening versus annual screening lacks strong evidence for mortality reduction. Updated pain agreements (C) are administrative tools that may improve communication but don't address the acute safety risk these patients face. While benzodiazepine tapering (D) would theoretically reduce risk by eliminating the dangerous combination, implementing a mandatory clinic-wide protocol could be harmful without individualized assessment, potentially causing withdrawal complications or driving patients to seek care elsewhere. For USMLE Step 3, remember that patient safety questions often test your knowledge of evidence-based interventions with proven mortality benefits. When multiple interventions seem reasonable, choose the one that most directly addresses the life-threatening mechanism.

Question 2

1. μ-opioid
2. Dopamine D2
3. NMDA
4. GABA-A (correct answer)

Explanation: When you encounter a patient with acute confusion, agitation, tremor, and autonomic hyperactivity (tachycardia, hypertension) in the hospital setting, always consider withdrawal syndromes. The key clue here is the patient's use of valerian root, an herbal supplement that acts as a GABA-A receptor agonist, similar to benzodiazepines and alcohol. This patient is experiencing withdrawal from valerian root. Although he's been abstinent from alcohol for 10 years, he's been chronically using valerian, which acts on the same GABA-A receptors. When hospitalized, he likely stopped taking his "herbal nerve tonic," precipitating withdrawal. GABA-A receptors are the brain's primary inhibitory system, so when these receptors are suddenly deprived of their agonist, you get disinhibition manifesting as agitation, tremor, confusion, and autonomic hyperactivity. Option A (μ-opioid) would cause withdrawal symptoms like muscle aches, nausea, diarrhea, and dilated pupils - not the autonomic hyperactivity and confusion seen here. Option B (dopamine D2) relates to antipsychotic withdrawal, which typically causes movement disorders rather than this constellation of symptoms. Option C (NMDA) receptors are involved in alcohol's effects, but this patient has been abstinent for years and the timeline doesn't fit alcohol withdrawal. Remember that "natural" herbal supplements can cause real withdrawal syndromes. Always ask about ALL substances patients take, including over-the-counter remedies. Valerian, kava, and other herbal anxiolytics work through GABA-A receptors and can cause benzodiazepine-like withdrawal when stopped abruptly.

Question 3

1. The patient has been taking her methadone and recently used a prescription opioid pain medication.
2. The patient has not been taking her methadone and has recently used heroin. (correct answer)
3. A laboratory error has resulted in a false-negative test for the methadone metabolite.
4. The patient is a rapid metabolizer of methadone, leading to undetectable EDDP levels.

Explanation: The absence of EDDP, the primary metabolite of methadone, indicates non-adherence to methadone treatment. EDDP has a longer half-life than methadone itself and should be present with regular dosing. The presence of 6-MAM is specific for recent heroin use. Therefore, the most likely scenario is that the patient has diverted her methadone and relapsed on heroin. Rapid metabolism would still produce detectable metabolites, and while lab error is possible, the combination of absent EDDP and present 6-MAM strongly points to non-adherence and relapse.

Question 4

1. Transition her to methadone maintenance, as it is the preferred agent for opioid use disorder in pregnancy.
2. Reassure her that naloxone has negligible systemic absorption and continuing her current regimen is a safe and effective option. (correct answer)
3. Initiate a rapid taper of buprenorphine/naloxone to discontinue all opioids by the third trimester.
4. Immediately switch her to an equivalent dose of buprenorphine monoproduct to eliminate the naloxone.

Explanation: The most appropriate initial step is to provide education and reassurance. Naloxone has very poor sublingual and oral bioavailability and is not expected to cause fetal harm. Both buprenorphine and methadone are considered standards of care in pregnancy. For a patient already stable on a buprenorphine/naloxone combination product, continuing it is a safe option. While switching to a buprenorphine monoproduct is a reasonable alternative that some guidelines suggest, it is not mandatory, and the initial step should be education. Tapering off medication during pregnancy is strongly discouraged due to high relapse rates, which pose a greater risk to the mother and fetus. Unnecessarily switching to methadone introduces risks associated with changing medications.

Question 5

1. Administer a standard intravenous dose of morphine and reassess in 15 minutes.
2. Provide intravenous ketorolac and perform an ultrasound-guided regional nerve block. (correct answer)
3. Advise the patient to stop naltrexone and administer opioids in 24-48 hours.
4. Administer a high dose of intravenous fentanyl under continuous monitoring in an attempt to override the opioid blockade.

Explanation: Naltrexone is a competitive opioid antagonist that will block the effects of standard doses of opioid analgesics like morphine. The most effective strategy is to use non-opioid modalities. A combination of a systemic non-opioid analgesic (like ketorolac) and regional anesthesia (like a popliteal and saphenous nerve block for an ankle fracture) can provide excellent pain control without relying on opioid receptors. While very high doses of potent opioids might overcome the blockade, this is a high-risk strategy. Delaying analgesia is unethical. Standard opioid doses will be ineffective.

Question 6

1. Confirm a negative urine drug screen again on the day of injection.
2. Wait an additional 5 days to ensure a full 10-day opioid-free period.
3. Administer a naloxone challenge test to rule out residual physiologic dependence. (correct answer)
4. Obtain baseline liver function tests due to the risk of naltrexone hepatotoxicity.

Explanation: Administering an opioid antagonist like naltrexone to a patient with residual opioids in their system can precipitate a severe withdrawal syndrome. Due to the high potency and lipophilicity of synthetic opioids like fentanyl, patients may have residual physiologic dependence even after 5-7 days and with a negative urine screen. A naloxone challenge test (using a small dose of injectable or intranasal naloxone) is the safest way to confirm that the patient will tolerate an antagonist. If the challenge is negative (i.e., no withdrawal symptoms), it is safe to proceed. Baseline LFTs are important, but preventing precipitated withdrawal is the most critical immediate step.

Question 7

1. Inhibition of methadone metabolism, leading to toxicity.
2. Induction of methadone metabolism, leading to withdrawal. (correct answer)
3. Displacement of methadone from plasma proteins by rifampin.
4. Rifampin-induced opioid receptor antagonism.

Explanation: Rifampin is a potent inducer of cytochrome P450 enzymes, particularly CYP3A4, which is a major pathway for methadone metabolism. Induction of these enzymes leads to accelerated metabolism of methadone, resulting in lower plasma levels and a shorter effective duration of action. This causes the patient to experience opioid withdrawal symptoms before their next scheduled dose. The appropriate management is to increase the methadone dose, often by splitting the dose or increasing the total daily amount, to compensate for the accelerated metabolism.

Question 8

1. Naltrexone
2. Gabapentin
3. Disulfiram
4. Acamprosate (correct answer)

Explanation: When managing alcohol use disorder in patients with multiple comorbidities, you must carefully consider how each medication is metabolized and whether it's contraindicated in specific conditions like kidney disease. Acamprosate (D) should be avoided in this patient because it's primarily eliminated by the kidneys unchanged. With an eGFR of 25 mL/min/1.73 m², this patient has stage 4 chronic kidney disease, and acamprosate is contraindicated when creatinine clearance falls below 30 mL/min due to risk of drug accumulation and toxicity. Let's examine why the other options are safer choices: Naltrexone (A) is metabolized by the liver, not the kidneys, making it appropriate for patients with renal impairment. However, you'd want to ensure this patient doesn't have significant liver disease from alcohol use. Gabapentin (B), while requiring dose adjustment in kidney disease, can still be used safely with appropriate monitoring and reduced dosing. Disulfiram (C) is metabolized hepatically and doesn't require renal dose adjustment, though it requires careful patient selection due to its mechanism of causing unpleasant reactions with alcohol consumption. The patient's depression and sobriety status don't contraindicate any of these medications, but the severe kidney impairment is the decisive factor here. Study tip for Step 3: Always check renal function when prescribing any medication. Acamprosate is one of the few psychiatric medications that's primarily renally eliminated rather than hepatically metabolized—remember this exception when managing addiction in CKD patients.

Question 9

1. Administer a 0.4 mg dose of intravenous naloxone.
2. Provide supportive care with clonidine and ondansetron.
3. Administer an additional 8 mg dose of sublingual buprenorphine. (correct answer)
4. Give 4 mg of intravenous morphine to treat the severe pain.

Explanation: This patient is experiencing precipitated withdrawal, which occurs when a partial agonist (buprenorphine) displaces a full agonist (heroin) from opioid receptors in a physically dependent individual. The counterintuitive but correct treatment is to administer more buprenorphine. The goal is to give a high enough dose of buprenorphine to saturate the opioid receptors, at which point its partial agonist activity will begin to alleviate withdrawal symptoms. Giving naloxone or a full agonist would worsen or complicate the situation. Supportive care alone is insufficient and will prolong the patient's suffering.

Question 10

1. High-tyramine foods such as aged cheeses and cured meats.
2. Activities that require high levels of mental alertness, such as driving.
3. Concurrent use of opioid-containing pain relievers.
4. Non-prescription cough syrups and alcohol-based mouthwashes. (correct answer)

Explanation: When you encounter questions about disulfiram therapy, focus on its unique mechanism of action and the critical safety concerns that arise from blocking alcohol metabolism. Disulfiram works by inhibiting aldehyde dehydrogenase, the enzyme that breaks down acetaldehyde (alcohol's toxic metabolite). When patients consume ANY alcohol while on disulfiram, acetaldehyde accumulates rapidly, causing the severe disulfiram-ethanol reaction: flushing, nausea, vomiting, headache, chest pain, and potentially dangerous hypotension. This reaction can occur with surprisingly small amounts of alcohol. The correct answer is D because non-prescription cough syrups and alcohol-based mouthwashes contain ethanol that can trigger this potentially life-threatening reaction. Many patients don't realize these common products contain alcohol, making this education absolutely critical for safety. Even small exposures from mouthwash or cough medicine can cause severe symptoms. Option A is incorrect because tyramine interactions are associated with MAOIs, not disulfiram. Option B is wrong because disulfiram doesn't typically cause sedation or impair mental alertness - the primary safety concern isn't cognitive impairment. Option C is incorrect because opioids don't interact dangerously with disulfiram through its aldehyde dehydrogenase mechanism. Remember that disulfiram questions on USMLE Step 3 often test whether you understand that alcohol is hidden in many everyday products. Always think beyond obvious alcoholic beverages - patients need comprehensive education about perfumes, cooking extracts, certain foods cooked with alcohol, and over-the-counter medications to prevent accidental and dangerous exposures.

Question 11

1. Stop buprenorphine and wait for a COWS score of at least 12 before initiating a low dose of methadone.
2. Gradually taper the buprenorphine dose to zero over 1-2 weeks before starting methadone.
3. Administer the last dose of buprenorphine and start methadone at 20-30 mg the next day, titrating as tolerated. (correct answer)
4. Administer the first dose of methadone in the morning and the last dose of buprenorphine in the evening of the same day.

Explanation: When transitioning from a partial agonist (buprenorphine) to a full agonist (methadone), there is no risk of precipitated withdrawal. Therefore, a washout period is not necessary and is contraindicated, as it would cause the patient to experience withdrawal and increase relapse risk. The standard procedure is to give the patient their last dose of buprenorphine, wait 12-24 hours, and then initiate methadone at a low starting dose (typically 20-40 mg), followed by gradual titration based on symptoms. Waiting for withdrawal signs is necessary only when going from a full agonist to a partial agonist.

Question 12

1. Rapid metabolism of buprenorphine leading to undetectable metabolite levels.
2. Excessive fluid intake leading to dilution of the urine specimen.
3. A false positive result for the parent drug buprenorphine.
4. Addition of buprenorphine directly to the urine sample prior to submission. (correct answer)

Explanation: When evaluating urine drug screens in opioid treatment programs, you need to understand the relationship between parent drugs and their metabolites. A positive result for the parent drug (buprenorphine) coupled with absence of its primary metabolite (norbuprenorphine) is a red flag for sample tampering. In normal metabolism, buprenorphine is converted to norbuprenorphine through hepatic processes. When someone takes buprenorphine therapeutically, you expect to see both the parent drug and its metabolite in urine. The absence of norbuprenorphine while buprenorphine is present strongly suggests the drug was added directly to the urine sample after collection, bypassing normal metabolism entirely. Choice A is incorrect because rapid metabolism would actually increase metabolite levels, not eliminate them completely. If anything, you'd see higher norbuprenorphine concentrations with faster metabolism. Choice B fails because dilution affects both parent drug and metabolite proportionally - you wouldn't see selective absence of just the metabolite while the parent drug remains detectable. Choice C doesn't explain the metabolite pattern; a false positive for buprenorphine wouldn't influence norbuprenorphine results, and the clinical picture doesn't suggest analytical error. The correct answer is D - direct addition of buprenorphine to urine explains why you see the parent drug without its expected metabolite. Remember this pattern: whenever you see a positive parent drug with absent expected metabolites in addiction medicine, consider sample adulteration. This is a common method patients use to appear compliant while avoiding actual medication adherence.

Question 13

1. Advise her to hold the taper at the current dose for 1-2 weeks and reinforce non-pharmacologic coping skills. (correct answer)
2. Prescribe a 7-day course of lorazepam to be used as needed for breakthrough anxiety.
3. Increase the clonazepam dose back to the previously tolerated level and restart the taper in one month.
4. Recommend immediate admission to an inpatient unit for medical detoxification.

Explanation: When managing benzodiazepine withdrawal, you must distinguish between withdrawal symptoms and situational anxiety exacerbations. This patient presents a classic scenario where external stressors (job conflict) coincide with an ongoing taper, making symptom attribution challenging but crucial for appropriate management. The correct approach is A) holding the taper and reinforcing coping skills. When patients experience increased symptoms during benzodiazepine withdrawal that coincide with identifiable stressors, the most therapeutic response is stabilization rather than escalation. Holding at the current dose prevents further physiological destabilization while allowing time to address the situational trigger through non-pharmacologic interventions. This maintains progress toward the ultimate goal of discontinuation. B is problematic because adding lorazepam introduces a shorter-acting benzodiazepine, which can complicate withdrawal from the longer-acting clonazepam and potentially worsen rebound symptoms. C represents regression in treatment by increasing the dose back to previous levels, essentially restarting the entire process and reinforcing the patient's dependence on medication for stress management. D is excessive since the patient isn't experiencing severe withdrawal symptoms (seizures, delirium, severe autonomic instability) that would warrant inpatient detoxification. For Step 3, remember that benzodiazepine management questions often test your ability to balance patient comfort with treatment goals. Look for scenarios where external stressors complicate withdrawal—the answer typically involves stabilization and enhanced psychosocial support rather than medication adjustments. Avoid choices that represent treatment regression or unnecessary escalation of care.

Question 14

1. Initiating a trial of bupropion.
2. Referring him for a 28-day inpatient rehabilitation program.
3. Enrolling him in a contingency management program. (correct answer)
4. Prescribing modafinil to reduce cocaine cravings.

Explanation: There are no FDA-approved medications for cocaine use disorder. The psychosocial intervention with the strongest evidence base for stimulant use disorders is contingency management (CM). CM uses principles of operant conditioning, providing tangible rewards (e.g., vouchers, prizes) for objective evidence of abstinence (e.g., negative urine drug screens). This approach has consistently been shown to increase rates of abstinence. While some medications like bupropion and modafinil have been studied, the evidence is weak or inconsistent. Inpatient rehab is an intensive intervention, but CM is a specific outpatient strategy that directly addresses the pattern of intermittent relapse.

Question 15

1. Abruptly stop alprazolam and start a phenobarbital loading protocol in an inpatient setting.
2. Cross-taper from alprazolam to an equivalent dose of diazepam, then slowly taper the diazepam over several months. (correct answer)
3. Decrease the alprazolam dose by 0.5 mg each week until the medication is discontinued.
4. Add buspirone for anxiety and maintain the current alprazolam dose for breakthrough symptoms.

Explanation: For patients on long-term, high-dose, short-acting benzodiazepines like alprazolam, direct tapering is often difficult due to inter-dose withdrawal. The preferred method is to switch the patient to an equivalent dose of a long-acting benzodiazepine, such as diazepam or clonazepam. The long half-life of these agents provides a smoother, more tolerable withdrawal course. The taper should then proceed very slowly, often over months, to minimize withdrawal symptoms. A weekly 0.5 mg reduction of alprazolam is too rapid and likely to fail. Inpatient phenobarbital is for acute, severe withdrawal, not outpatient continuity. Adding buspirone does not address the physiological dependence on alprazolam.

Question 16

1. A combination of cognitive-behavioral therapy and motivational interviewing. (correct answer)
2. Prescription of a long-acting benzodiazepine to manage withdrawal-related anxiety.
3. Initiation of N-acetylcysteine to reduce cravings and cannabis use.
4. A rapid 2-week taper of cannabis use followed by complete abstinence.

Explanation: The cornerstones of treatment for cannabis use disorder are psychosocial interventions. A combination of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) to develop coping skills and motivational interviewing (MI) to enhance and maintain motivation for change has the strongest evidence base for promoting long-term abstinence. While some medications have been studied for cannabis withdrawal (e.g., gabapentin, N-acetylcysteine), none have shown robust efficacy for long-term relapse prevention or are considered first-line. Prescribing benzodiazepines is generally avoided due to the risk of substituting one addictive substance for another. A structured taper is not a standard evidence-based approach.

Question 17

1. Discontinue buprenorphine/naloxone 72 hours before surgery and restart it after he no longer requires full agonist opioids.
2. Continue his usual dose of buprenorphine/naloxone and supplement with scheduled non-opioid analgesics and as-needed full agonist opioids. (correct answer)
3. Transition him to an equivalent daily dose of methadone one week prior to the surgery to simplify pain management.
4. Decrease his buprenorphine/naloxone dose by 50% on the day of surgery and manage pain primarily with regional anesthesia.

Explanation: The current standard of care for patients on chronic buprenorphine therapy undergoing surgery is to continue the medication through the perioperative period. Buprenorphine's high affinity for the mu-opioid receptor can interfere with the efficacy of full agonists, but this effect can be overcome with higher doses if needed. Discontinuing buprenorphine significantly increases the risk of relapse and overdose. A multimodal approach, continuing the maintenance dose (which can be split to provide more consistent analgesia) and adding non-opioid analgesics (e.g., NSAIDs, acetaminophen) and judicious use of short-acting full agonists for breakthrough pain, is the recommended strategy.

Question 18

1. Consider a trial of a long-acting stimulant, such as lisdexamfetamine, with close monitoring and a clear treatment agreement. (correct answer)
2. Prescribe a short-acting stimulant like immediate-release methylphenidate to minimize daily exposure.
3. Inform him that stimulant medications are absolutely contraindicated given his history.
4. Focus exclusively on behavioral therapies and skills training for ADHD management.

Explanation: When managing ADHD in patients with substance use disorder history, you need to balance the risk of relapse against the potential benefits of effective treatment. The key principle is that untreated ADHD itself can increase relapse risk, so withholding appropriate treatment may actually be counterproductive. Choice A is correct because this patient has several factors supporting stimulant use: 18 months of documented sobriety, failure of non-stimulant options (atomoxetine and bupropion), and significant functional impairment. Lisdexamfetamine is particularly appropriate as it's a prodrug that must be metabolized to become active, reducing abuse potential. The close monitoring and treatment agreement provide necessary safeguards. Choice B is wrong because short-acting stimulants like immediate-release methylphenidate actually have higher abuse potential due to their rapid onset and offset, making them less appropriate than long-acting formulations in patients with substance use history. Choice C represents an overly rigid approach. While stimulants do carry addiction risk, they're not absolutely contraindicated in recovered patients, especially when ADHD symptoms significantly impair functioning and non-stimulant treatments have failed. Choice D ignores the reality that behavioral interventions alone are often insufficient for moderate to severe ADHD, particularly when pharmacological options haven't been fully explored. While behavioral therapy should be part of treatment, it shouldn't be the sole intervention when more effective options exist. Remember for Step 3: Substance use history doesn't automatically eliminate medication options—focus on harm reduction principles, duration of sobriety, and whether safer alternatives have been tried first.

Question 19

1. Initiate a mandatory taper and discharge from the program due to non-adherence.
2. Decrease the buprenorphine dose to discourage concurrent illicit opioid use.
3. Explore the psychosocial stressors, increase counseling frequency, and consider a temporary dose increase. (correct answer)
4. Require daily clinic visits for observed dosing as the sole intervention.

Explanation: Substance use disorders are chronic, relapsing conditions. A lapse, especially in the context of a major psychosocial stressor, should be met with a supportive, non-punitive response. The best approach is to re-engage the patient, explore the triggers for the lapse (the mother's diagnosis), intensify psychosocial support (e.g., increase counseling), and reassess the treatment plan. A temporary increase in the buprenorphine dose may help stabilize cravings during this high-risk period. Punitive measures like discharge are counterproductive and lead to poor outcomes. Decreasing the dose is illogical and would likely increase relapse risk.

Question 20

1. Disulfiram
2. Naltrexone
3. Acamprosate (correct answer)
4. Topiramate

Explanation: This patient has evidence of mild alcoholic liver injury (elevated transaminases). Naltrexone is metabolized by the liver and carries a risk of hepatotoxicity, making it a less ideal choice in patients with active liver inflammation. Disulfiram is also potentially hepatotoxic and is contraindicated in patients with significant liver disease. Acamprosate is metabolized by the kidneys and is the safest option in patients with liver dysfunction. Topiramate is used off-label and is not considered a first-line agent.