Pulmonary Vascular Disease Practice Test

A 50-year-old woman with prior DVT has suspected CTEPH based on V/Q mismatch and elevated PASP on echo. Meds: none. Exam: loud P2, RV heave. She asks what therapy offers potential cure rather than symptom control.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 65-year-old woman has sudden dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain shortly after a long flight. PMH: osteoarthritis. Meds: naproxen. Vitals: HR 118, BP 132/78, RR 26, SpO2 89% room air. Exam: clear lungs, tachycardia, mild unilateral calf tenderness. Labs: D-dimer elevated. CTPA demonstrates a lobar PE with mild right ventricular enlargement; troponin is slightly elevated. She remains normotensive.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?