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Orthopedic And Soft Tissue Injuries Practice Test
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Q1
A 52-year-old woman with a history of chronic low back pain presents to the emergency department with a 12-hour history of new-onset bilateral leg weakness, numbness in her perineal area, and urinary retention. She required catheterization for 600 mL of urine. On examination, she has 3/5 strength in her lower extremities bilaterally, decreased sensation in a 'saddle' distribution, and diminished anal sphincter tone.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?