Statics and Dynamics Quiz: Newtons Second Law Cartesian
6 questions · exam conditions
0:00
Newtons Second Law CartesianQuestion 1 of 6

A package of mass m=10 kgm = 10\text{ kg} is placed on a conveyor belt that moves in the +x+x direction at constant speed vb=3 m/sv_b = 3\text{ m/s}. The package is placed with zero initial velocity. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the package and belt is μk=0.3\mu_k = 0.3, and g=9.81 m/s2g = 9.81\text{ m/s}^2. The normal force is in the yy-direction.

During the phase while the package is slipping relative to the belt, what are the correct xx- and yy-components of the equation of motion for the package, and how long does this slipping phase last?

xx: mv˙x=μkmgm\dot{v}_x = \mu_k mg; yy: Nmg=0N - mg = 0. Slipping lasts t=vb/(μkg)1.02 st = v_b/(\mu_k g) \approx 1.02\text{ s}, after which the package reaches belt speed; the friction force is positive in +x+x during slip because the belt moves faster than the package.
xx: mv˙x=μkmgm\dot{v}_x = -\mu_k mg; yy: Nmg=0N - mg = 0. Slipping lasts t=vb/μk10 st = v_b/\mu_k \approx 10\text{ s}, because the friction force opposes belt motion and decelerates the package until it matches belt speed.
xx: mv˙x=μkNm\dot{v}_x = \mu_k N; yy: Nmg=mv˙yN - mg = m\dot{v}_y. Slipping lasts t=vb/(μkg)1.02 st = v_b/(\mu_k g) \approx 1.02\text{ s}, but the yy-equation shows N>mgN > mg during slipping because the friction force has a vertical reaction component.
xx: mv˙x=μkmgm\dot{v}_x = \mu_k mg; yy: Nmg=0N - mg = 0. Slipping lasts t=vb/(2μkg)0.51 st = v_b/(2\mu_k g) \approx 0.51\text{ s}, because the average relative velocity during slip is half the belt speed, reducing the effective slipping duration by a factor of two.
← Back to quizzes

Statics and Dynamics Quiz

Statics and Dynamics Quiz: Newtons Second Law Cartesian

Practice Newtons Second Law Cartesian in Statics and Dynamics with focused quiz questions that help you check what you know, review explanations, and build confidence with test-style prompts.

What this quiz covers

This quiz focuses on Newtons Second Law Cartesian, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for Statics and Dynamics.

How to use this quiz

Try each quiz question before looking at the correct answer. Use the explanations to review missed ideas, then come back to similar questions until the pattern feels familiar.

All questions

Question 1

A package of mass m=10 kgm = 10\text{ kg} is placed on a conveyor belt that moves in the +x+x direction at constant speed vb=3 m/sv_b = 3\text{ m/s}. The package is placed with zero initial velocity. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the package and belt is μk=0.3\mu_k = 0.3, and g=9.81 m/s2g = 9.81\text{ m/s}^2. The normal force is in the yy-direction.

During the phase while the package is slipping relative to the belt, what are the correct xx- and yy-components of the equation of motion for the package, and how long does this slipping phase last?

  1. xx: mv˙x=μkmgm\dot{v}_x = \mu_k mg; yy: Nmg=0N - mg = 0. Slipping lasts t=vb/(μkg)1.02 st = v_b/(\mu_k g) \approx 1.02\text{ s}, after which the package reaches belt speed; the friction force is positive in +x+x during slip because the belt moves faster than the package. (correct answer)
  2. xx: mv˙x=μkmgm\dot{v}_x = -\mu_k mg; yy: Nmg=0N - mg = 0. Slipping lasts t=vb/μk10 st = v_b/\mu_k \approx 10\text{ s}, because the friction force opposes belt motion and decelerates the package until it matches belt speed.
  3. xx: mv˙x=μkNm\dot{v}_x = \mu_k N; yy: Nmg=mv˙yN - mg = m\dot{v}_y. Slipping lasts t=vb/(μkg)1.02 st = v_b/(\mu_k g) \approx 1.02\text{ s}, but the yy-equation shows N>mgN > mg during slipping because the friction force has a vertical reaction component.
  4. xx: mv˙x=μkmgm\dot{v}_x = \mu_k mg; yy: Nmg=0N - mg = 0. Slipping lasts t=vb/(2μkg)0.51 st = v_b/(2\mu_k g) \approx 0.51\text{ s}, because the average relative velocity during slip is half the belt speed, reducing the effective slipping duration by a factor of two.
Explanation: Whenever you see a conveyor belt problem, your first instinct should be to identify who is moving faster — the belt or the package — because that determines the direction of kinetic friction on the package. Here, the belt moves at vb=3 m/sv_b = 3\text{ m/s} while the package starts at rest. The belt surface moves faster than the package, so kinetic friction acts on the package in the +x+x direction, accelerating it forward. The equations of motion are straightforward: vertically, the package has no acceleration, giving Nmg=0N - mg = 0, so N=mgN = mg. Horizontally, the friction force is fk=μkN=μkmgf_k = \mu_k N = \mu_k mg, giving mv˙x=μkmgm\dot{v}_x = \mu_k mg, which simplifies to v˙x=μkg2.943 m/s2\dot{v}_x = \mu_k g \approx 2.943\text{ m/s}^2. Slipping ends when the package reaches belt speed: t=vb/(μkg)=3/(0.3×9.81)1.02 st = v_b/(\mu_k g) = 3/(0.3 \times 9.81) \approx 1.02\text{ s}. This is exactly what A describes — making it correct. B is wrong on two counts: friction acts in +x+x (not x-x), and dividing by μk\mu_k alone (without gg) produces a nonsensical time with wrong units. C writes the xx-equation correctly but incorrectly claims N>mgN > mg in the yy-direction — friction is horizontal and creates no vertical imbalance, so N=mgN = mg exactly. D gets the equations right but invents a "factor of two" correction based on average relative velocity, which has no basis in Newton's second law; the acceleration is constant, so the time is simply vb/(μkg)v_b/(\mu_k g). Study tip: Always draw a free-body diagram and ask "which surface is sliding relative to the other, and in which direction?" — that single question pins down the friction direction on every conveyor belt problem.

Question 2

A particle of mass mm is launched from the origin with initial velocity v0=v0i^\vec{v}_0 = v_0\hat{i} (purely horizontal) in a gravitational field g=gj^\vec{g} = -g\hat{j}. In addition to gravity, a horizontal wind exerts a force Fwind=Fwi^\vec{F}_{wind} = F_w\hat{i} that acts only while y<Hy < H (i.e., below height HH). Above HH, only gravity acts.

A student wants to find the xx-position when the particle returns to y=0y = 0 (the range). Which approach correctly applies Newton's second law in Cartesian components to set up this problem?

  1. Use mx¨=Fwm\ddot{x} = F_w and my¨=mgm\ddot{y} = -mg for the entire flight, integrate both equations from t=0t = 0 to the landing time tft_f found from y(tf)=0y(t_f) = 0; the wind force can be treated as constant throughout because the particle necessarily passes back through y<Hy < H on its descent.
  2. Split into two phases at the apex y=ymaxy = y_{max}: (1) from launch to apex with mx¨=Fwm\ddot{x} = F_w, my¨=mgm\ddot{y} = -mg; (2) from apex to landing with mx¨=0m\ddot{x} = 0, my¨=mgm\ddot{y} = -mg; the wind ceases at the apex because the particle stops moving in yy, which triggers the altitude condition.
  3. Split the trajectory into three phases: (1) ascent with y<Hy < H: mx¨=Fwm\ddot{x} = F_w, my¨=mgm\ddot{y} = -mg; (2) above HH: mx¨=0m\ddot{x} = 0, my¨=mgm\ddot{y} = -mg; (3) descent with y<Hy < H: mx¨=Fwm\ddot{x} = F_w, my¨=mgm\ddot{y} = -mg; match velocity and position at each phase boundary to find total range. (correct answer)
  4. Use mx¨=Fwm\ddot{x} = F_w and my¨=mgm\ddot{y} = -mg while y<Hy < H, then mx¨=0m\ddot{x} = 0 and my¨=mgm\ddot{y} = -mg while yHy \geq H; split into two phases at the moment the particle crosses y=Hy = H on its way up, and assume it does not re-enter y<Hy < H until landing, ignoring the descending portion below HH.
Explanation: When a force depends on position (or any condition that changes during motion), you must identify every distinct phase where the equations of motion change — and apply the correct equations within each phase, matching velocity and position at the boundaries. Here, the wind force Fwi^F_w\hat{i} acts only when y<Hy < H. A typical projectile launched below HH with enough speed will: (1) rise through y<Hy < H with wind acting, (2) travel above HH with no wind, then (3) descend back below HH with wind acting again before landing. Answer C correctly captures all three phases. During phases 1 and 3, you use mx¨=Fwm\ddot{x} = F_w, my¨=mgm\ddot{y} = -mg; during phase 2, mx¨=0m\ddot{x} = 0, my¨=mgm\ddot{y} = -mg. At each boundary (crossing y=Hy = H upward and downward), you match position and velocity to carry information forward, ultimately yielding the correct total range. A is wrong because it applies wind throughout the entire flight — including above HH — which violates the stated condition. The descent re-entering y<Hy < H doesn't retroactively justify a constant FwF_w everywhere. B is wrong because it ties the wind cutoff to y˙=0\dot{y} = 0 (the apex), not to the altitude y=Hy = H. The apex and the moment of crossing HH are generally different instants. D is wrong because it correctly identifies the upward crossing of HH but then ignores the descent phase below HH, missing the third phase where wind resumes. Your strategy: whenever a force has a conditional domain (position-dependent, speed-dependent, etc.), sketch the trajectory and list every interval where conditions change — each is a separate phase requiring its own equations of motion.

Question 3

A particle of mass m=4 kgm = 4\text{ kg} moves under the influence of a position-dependent force F=(12x)i^+(8y)j^ N\vec{F} = (12x)\hat{i} + (-8y)\hat{j}\text{ N}, where xx and yy are in meters. At t=0t = 0: x=1 mx = 1\text{ m}, y=1 my = 1\text{ m}, x˙=0\dot{x} = 0, y˙=2 m/s\dot{y} = 2\text{ m/s}.

Which of the following correctly characterizes the nature of the motion in each coordinate direction and identifies whether the particle will remain bounded?

  1. The xx-motion is oscillatory (simple harmonic about x=0x = 0) and bounded, while the yy-motion diverges exponentially; the particle is unbounded because the xx-force is restoring but the yy-force repels from y=0y = 0, and initial conditions in yy cause exponential growth.
  2. Both the xx- and yy-motions are simple harmonic and bounded because both force components are linear in displacement; the particle executes Lissajous motion and remains bounded for all time.
  3. The xx-motion diverges exponentially away from x=0x = 0 and is unbounded, while the yy-motion is simple harmonic and bounded; the particle is unbounded because the xx-force Fx=12xF_x = 12x is a repulsive (unstable) force proportional to displacement. (correct answer)
  4. The xx-motion is simple harmonic and bounded, while the yy-motion diverges; the particle is bounded overall because the yy-direction energy is transferred to the xx-direction through the coupled equations of motion, preventing unbounded growth.
Explanation: When you see a position-dependent force linear in displacement, your first instinct should be to check the sign of the proportionality constant — it determines whether the force is restoring (leading to oscillation) or repulsive (leading to exponential growth). Applying Newton's second law separately to each coordinate: x¨=12x4=3xx¨3x=0\ddot{x} = \frac{12x}{4} = 3x \quad \Rightarrow \quad \ddot{x} - 3x = 0 y¨=8y4=2yy¨+2y=0\ddot{y} = \frac{-8y}{4} = -2y \quad \Rightarrow \quad \ddot{y} + 2y = 0 The xx-equation has the form x¨=+ω2x\ddot{x} = +\omega^2 x, which gives exponential solutions x(t)=Ae3t+Be3tx(t) = A e^{\sqrt{3}\,t} + B e^{-\sqrt{3}\,t}. With x(0)=1x(0)=1 and x˙(0)=0\dot{x}(0)=0, both coefficients are nonzero, so x(t)x(t) grows without bound. The yy-equation has the form y¨=ω2y\ddot{y} = -\omega^2 y, which gives simple harmonic motion — bounded oscillation forever. This confirms answer C is correct. A gets the physics exactly backwards — it mistakenly calls the xx-force "restoring" and the yy-force "repulsive," when the signs say the opposite. B incorrectly assumes any force linear in displacement is harmonic. Linearity alone isn't enough; the sign determines oscillation versus exponential behavior. D contains a subtle trap: the two equations of motion are decoupled (xx and yy appear independently), so no energy transfer between directions is possible. The yy-direction cannot "rescue" xx, and calling the system "bounded overall" is simply wrong. Key tip: Always write out the equation q¨+kq=0\ddot{q} + kq = 0. If k>0k > 0, it's SHM; if k<0k < 0, it's exponential growth — sign is everything.

Question 4

A block of mass mm rests on a frictionless horizontal surface. Two forces act on it simultaneously: F1=(F0cosθ)i^+(F0sinθ)j^\vec{F}_1 = (F_0\cos\theta)\hat{i} + (F_0\sin\theta)\hat{j} and F2=F0i^\vec{F}_2 = -F_0\hat{i}. A third force F3\vec{F}_3 is applied such that the block accelerates purely in the j^\hat{j} direction with magnitude a0a_0.

Which expression correctly gives F3\vec{F}_3 that produces the required motion, and what constraint on θ\theta ensures F3\vec{F}_3 has no j^\hat{j} component?

  1. F3=F0(1cosθ)i^F0sinθj^+ma0j^\vec{F}_3 = F_0(1 - \cos\theta)\hat{i} - F_0\sin\theta\hat{j} + ma_0\hat{j}; the constraint is sinθ=ma0/F0\sin\theta = ma_0/F_0, ensuring the j^\hat{j} component of F3\vec{F}_3 vanishes while the block still accelerates in j^\hat{j}.
  2. F3=F0(1cosθ)i^+(ma0F0sinθ)j^\vec{F}_3 = F_0(1 - \cos\theta)\hat{i} + (ma_0 - F_0\sin\theta)\hat{j}; the constraint sinθ=ma0/F0\sin\theta = ma_0/F_0 eliminates the j^\hat{j} component of F3\vec{F}_3, so the required j^\hat{j} acceleration comes entirely from F1\vec{F}_1's vertical component. (correct answer)
  3. F3=F0cosθi^+(ma0F0sinθ)j^\vec{F}_3 = F_0\cos\theta\hat{i} + (ma_0 - F_0\sin\theta)\hat{j}; the constraint sinθ=ma0/F0\sin\theta = ma_0/F_0 eliminates the j^\hat{j} component of F3\vec{F}_3, with the i^\hat{i} component of F3\vec{F}_3 balancing the net horizontal forces from F1\vec{F}_1 and F2\vec{F}_2 together.
  4. F3=F0(1cosθ)i^+(ma0F0sinθ)j^\vec{F}_3 = -F_0(1 - \cos\theta)\hat{i} + (ma_0 - F_0\sin\theta)\hat{j}; the constraint θ=π/2\theta = \pi/2 is the only angle ensuring F3\vec{F}_3 has no j^\hat{j} component when F0=ma0F_0 = ma_0, since all horizontal forces cancel at that angle.
Explanation: When a problem gives you multiple forces and a specified net acceleration, your first move should always be Newton's second law: F=ma\sum \vec{F} = m\vec{a}. Here, the block must accelerate as ma0j^m a_0 \hat{j}, meaning the net force must equal ma0j^m a_0 \hat{j} — zero in i^\hat{i}, and ma0m a_0 in j^\hat{j}. Start by summing F1\vec{F}_1 and F2\vec{F}_2: their combined i^\hat{i} component is F0cosθF0=F0(cosθ1)F_0\cos\theta - F_0 = F_0(\cos\theta - 1), and their j^\hat{j} component is F0sinθF_0\sin\theta. For the total net force to equal ma0j^ma_0\hat{j}, you need F3\vec{F}_3 to supply whatever is missing. The i^\hat{i} component of F3\vec{F}_3 must cancel F0(cosθ1)F_0(\cos\theta - 1), giving F0(1cosθ)F_0(1-\cos\theta). The j^\hat{j} component must supply ma0F0sinθma_0 - F_0\sin\theta. This confirms answer B: F3=F0(1cosθ)i^+(ma0F0sinθ)j^\vec{F}_3 = F_0(1-\cos\theta)\hat{i} + (ma_0 - F_0\sin\theta)\hat{j}. When sinθ=ma0/F0\sin\theta = ma_0/F_0, the j^\hat{j} component of F3\vec{F}_3 vanishes, and F1\vec{F}_1's vertical component alone drives the acceleration. A incorrectly writes F3\vec{F}_3 as if it still contains a separate ma0j^ma_0\hat{j} term after combining, double-counting the vertical contribution. C gives the wrong i^\hat{i} component — F0cosθF_0\cos\theta instead of F0(1cosθ)F_0(1-\cos\theta) — suggesting it only cancels F2\vec{F}_2 without accounting for F1\vec{F}_1's horizontal part. D flips the sign of the i^\hat{i} component and imposes an overly restrictive constraint, valid only for a specific case rather than the general solution. Your strategy: always resolve all known forces component by component first, then solve for the unknown force as the difference between the required net force and the sum of known forces.

Question 5

A particle of mass m=2 kgm = 2\text{ kg} moves in the xyxy-plane under a force field F=(ay)i^+(bx)j^\vec{F} = (ay)\hat{i} + (bx)\hat{j}, where a=6 N/ma = 6\text{ N/m} and b=6 N/mb = 6\text{ N/m}. At t=0t = 0: position (x0,y0)=(1,0) m(x_0, y_0) = (1, 0)\text{ m}, velocity (x˙0,y˙0)=(0,3) m/s(\dot{x}_0, \dot{y}_0) = (0, 3)\text{ m/s}.

A student differentiates the xx-equation of motion to obtain a single ODE for x(t)x(t). Which of the following is the correct fourth-order ODE for xx alone, and what is the general solution form?

  1. Differentiating mx¨=aym\ddot{x} = ay twice gives mx....=ay¨m\ddddot{x} = a\ddot{y}; substituting y¨=bmx\ddot{y} = \frac{b}{m}x yields x....=abm2x\ddddot{x} = \frac{ab}{m^2}x, but since a=ba = b the equation reduces to x....=a2m2x\ddddot{x} = \frac{a^2}{m^2}x with only real exponential solutions e±(a/m)te^{\pm(a/m)t}, because the equal coefficients eliminate the imaginary roots.
  2. Differentiating mx¨=aym\ddot{x} = ay once gives mx...=ay˙m\dddot{x} = a\dot{y}; this cannot be further reduced because substituting the yy-equation introduces x˙\dot{x} terms, making the system irreducibly coupled and requiring numerical integration.
  3. Differentiating mx¨=aym\ddot{x} = ay twice and substituting from the yy-equation yields m2x....=abx¨m^2\ddddot{x} = ab\,\ddot{x}; setting ω2=ab/m2\omega^2 = ab/m^2 gives a characteristic equation r4=ω2r2r^4 = \omega^2 r^2, producing only oscillatory and zero roots with general solution x(t)=C1+C2t+C3cos(ωt)+C4sin(ωt)x(t) = C_1 + C_2 t + C_3\cos(\omega t) + C_4\sin(\omega t).
  4. Differentiating mx¨=aym\ddot{x} = ay twice and substituting y¨=bmx\ddot{y} = \frac{b}{m}x gives x....=abm2x\ddddot{x} = \frac{ab}{m^2}x; with a=b=6a = b = 6, m=2m = 2 this becomes x....=9x\ddddot{x} = 9x, whose characteristic roots are r=±3,±i3r = \pm\sqrt{3},\,\pm i\sqrt{3}, yielding x(t)=C1e3t+C2e3t+C3cos(3t)+C4sin(3t)x(t) = C_1 e^{\sqrt{3}t} + C_2 e^{-\sqrt{3}t} + C_3\cos(\sqrt{3}t) + C_4\sin(\sqrt{3}t). (correct answer)
Explanation: When a force depends on both coordinates, you can often eliminate one variable by differentiating an equation of motion and substituting the other equation — turning a coupled system into a single higher-order ODE. That's exactly the skill being tested here. Start with Newton's second law for each coordinate: mx¨=aym\ddot{x} = ay and my¨=bxm\ddot{y} = bx. Differentiate the xx-equation twice to get mx....=ay¨m\ddddot{x} = a\ddot{y}. Now substitute y¨=bmx\ddot{y} = \frac{b}{m}x from the yy-equation: mx....=abmxm\ddddot{x} = a \cdot \frac{b}{m}x, which simplifies to x....=abm2x\ddddot{x} = \frac{ab}{m^2}x. Plugging in a=b=6a = b = 6, m=2m = 2 gives x....=9x\ddddot{x} = 9x. The characteristic equation is r4=9r^4 = 9, so r49=0r^4 - 9 = 0, yielding r2=±3r^2 = \pm 3. The positive root gives r=±3r = \pm\sqrt{3} (real), and the negative root gives r=±i3r = \pm i\sqrt{3} (imaginary). This confirms D is correct, with general solution x(t)=C1e3t+C2e3t+C3cos(3t)+C4sin(3t)x(t) = C_1 e^{\sqrt{3}t} + C_2 e^{-\sqrt{3}t} + C_3\cos(\sqrt{3}t) + C_4\sin(\sqrt{3}t). A is wrong because r4=9r^4 = 9 has four roots — not just real ones. Equal values of aa and bb don't eliminate imaginary roots; you must solve r4=9r^4 = 9 fully. B is wrong because differentiating only once and then substituting y¨=bmx\ddot{y} = \frac{b}{m}x does allow full elimination — no numerical integration is needed. C is wrong because it incorrectly differentiates only once before substituting, producing x....=ω2x¨\ddddot{x} = \omega^2 \ddot{x} instead of the correct x....=ω2x\ddddot{x} = \omega^2 x, which changes both the characteristic equation and the solution entirely. Study tip: When eliminating variables from coupled ODEs, always track which derivative you differentiate into and which equation you substitute — mixing levels is the most common error and produces a completely different characteristic equation.

Question 6

A particle of mass mm slides on a frictionless horizontal surface. It is subject to a drag force whose xx- and yy-components are Fdrag,x=bx˙F_{drag,x} = -b\dot{x} and Fdrag,y=by˙F_{drag,y} = -b\dot{y}, where b>0b > 0 is a drag coefficient. An impulsive force gives the particle initial velocity v0=v0(cosαi^+sinαj^)\vec{v}_0 = v_0(\cos\alpha\,\hat{i} + \sin\alpha\,\hat{j}) at t=0t = 0.

Which of the following is a correct statement about the particle's trajectory and the direction of motion as tt \to \infty?

  1. The trajectory curves toward the xx-axis as tt increases, eventually becoming parallel to i^\hat{i}, because the yy-component of velocity decays faster than the xx-component due to the quadratic nature of the drag coupling between components.
  2. The trajectory is a straight line in the direction of v0\vec{v}_0 for all tt, and the speed decays exponentially; the direction of motion remains α\alpha from the xx-axis throughout the motion because the drag force components are proportional to velocity components independently. (correct answer)
  3. The trajectory spirals inward toward the origin because the drag force has both a speed-reducing component and a direction-changing component that causes the heading angle α\alpha to decrease monotonically over time.
  4. The trajectory is a straight line only if α=0\alpha = 0 or α=π/2\alpha = \pi/2; for other launch angles the drag coupling between components causes the path to curve toward the direction of the larger initial velocity component.
Explanation: When you see a drag force whose components depend only on their corresponding velocity components — Fx=bx˙F_x = -b\dot{x} and Fy=by˙F_y = -b\dot{y} — the key insight is that the two equations of motion are completely decoupled. You can solve each independently: mx¨=bx˙m\ddot{x} = -b\dot{x} gives x˙(t)=v0cosαebt/m\dot{x}(t) = v_0\cos\alpha\, e^{-bt/m}, and identically y˙(t)=v0sinαebt/m\dot{y}(t) = v_0\sin\alpha\, e^{-bt/m}. Both components decay with the same time constant τ=m/b\tau = m/b. Since both shrink by the same exponential factor at every moment, the ratio y˙/x˙=tanα\dot{y}/\dot{x} = \tan\alpha remains constant for all tt. The direction of motion never changes — the particle travels in a straight line at angle α\alpha, with speed decaying as v0ebt/mv_0 e^{-bt/m}. This confirms B as correct. Answer A is wrong because both components share the same decay rate — there is no differential decay, quadratic coupling, or any mechanism that would favor one axis over the other. C is wrong because the drag force here is purely speed-reducing (it acts antiparallel to velocity) and contains no cross-component coupling that could rotate the velocity vector — no spiraling occurs. D is wrong for the same decoupling reason: there is no interaction between the xx- and yy-equations, so curvature never arises regardless of α\alpha. A useful study habit: whenever drag components are written as Fi=bq˙iF_i = -b\dot{q}_i separately, immediately recognize that the axes decouple — identical time constants mean direction is preserved.