Statics and Dynamics Quiz: Moments Of Forces
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Moments Of ForcesQuestion 1 of 8

A force F=10i^+20j^15k^\mathbf{F} = 10\hat{i} + 20\hat{j} - 15\hat{k} N is applied at point P=(1,2,4)P = (1, -2, 4) m. The moment of this force is to be computed about an axis defined by unit vector λ^=13(i^+j^+k^)\hat{\lambda} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}(\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}) passing through points A=(0,0,0)A = (0, 0, 0) m and B=(1,1,1)B = (1, 1, 1) m.

Which expression correctly sets up the scalar moment of F\mathbf{F} about the axis ABAB?

MAB=λ^AB(rAP×F)M_{AB} = \hat{\lambda}_{AB} \cdot (\mathbf{r}_{AP} \times \mathbf{F}), where λ^AB=i^+j^+k^3\hat{\lambda}_{AB} = \frac{\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}}{\sqrt{3}} and rAP=i^2j^+4k^\mathbf{r}_{AP} = \hat{i} - 2\hat{j} + 4\hat{k} m, yielding a scalar in N·m.
MAB=λ^AB(rBP×F)M_{AB} = \hat{\lambda}_{AB} \cdot (\mathbf{r}_{BP} \times \mathbf{F}), where λ^AB=i^+j^+k^3\hat{\lambda}_{AB} = \frac{\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}}{\sqrt{3}} and rBP=3j^+3k^\mathbf{r}_{BP} = -3\hat{j} + 3\hat{k} m, because the moment arm must be measured from a point on the axis other than the origin to avoid a trivial calculation.
MAB=rAPFsinϕM_{AB} = |\mathbf{r}_{AP}||\mathbf{F}|\sin\phi, where ϕ\phi is the angle between the position vector rAP\mathbf{r}_{AP} and F\mathbf{F}, since the moment about an axis equals the perpendicular distance times the full force magnitude.
MAB=λ^ABFM_{AB} = \hat{\lambda}_{AB} \cdot \mathbf{F}, where λ^AB=i^+j^+k^3\hat{\lambda}_{AB} = \frac{\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}}{\sqrt{3}}, because the moment about an axis is the projection of the applied force vector onto that axis direction.
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Statics and Dynamics Quiz

Statics and Dynamics Quiz: Moments Of Forces

Practice Moments Of Forces in Statics and Dynamics with focused quiz questions that help you check what you know, review explanations, and build confidence with test-style prompts.

What this quiz covers

This quiz focuses on Moments Of Forces, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for Statics and Dynamics.

How to use this quiz

Try each quiz question before looking at the correct answer. Use the explanations to review missed ideas, then come back to similar questions until the pattern feels familiar.

All questions

Question 1

A force F=10i^+20j^15k^\mathbf{F} = 10\hat{i} + 20\hat{j} - 15\hat{k} N is applied at point P=(1,2,4)P = (1, -2, 4) m. The moment of this force is to be computed about an axis defined by unit vector λ^=13(i^+j^+k^)\hat{\lambda} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}(\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}) passing through points A=(0,0,0)A = (0, 0, 0) m and B=(1,1,1)B = (1, 1, 1) m.

Which expression correctly sets up the scalar moment of F\mathbf{F} about the axis ABAB?

  1. MAB=λ^AB(rAP×F)M_{AB} = \hat{\lambda}_{AB} \cdot (\mathbf{r}_{AP} \times \mathbf{F}), where λ^AB=i^+j^+k^3\hat{\lambda}_{AB} = \frac{\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}}{\sqrt{3}} and rAP=i^2j^+4k^\mathbf{r}_{AP} = \hat{i} - 2\hat{j} + 4\hat{k} m, yielding a scalar in N·m. (correct answer)
  2. MAB=λ^AB(rBP×F)M_{AB} = \hat{\lambda}_{AB} \cdot (\mathbf{r}_{BP} \times \mathbf{F}), where λ^AB=i^+j^+k^3\hat{\lambda}_{AB} = \frac{\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}}{\sqrt{3}} and rBP=3j^+3k^\mathbf{r}_{BP} = -3\hat{j} + 3\hat{k} m, because the moment arm must be measured from a point on the axis other than the origin to avoid a trivial calculation.
  3. MAB=rAPFsinϕM_{AB} = |\mathbf{r}_{AP}||\mathbf{F}|\sin\phi, where ϕ\phi is the angle between the position vector rAP\mathbf{r}_{AP} and F\mathbf{F}, since the moment about an axis equals the perpendicular distance times the full force magnitude.
  4. MAB=λ^ABFM_{AB} = \hat{\lambda}_{AB} \cdot \mathbf{F}, where λ^AB=i^+j^+k^3\hat{\lambda}_{AB} = \frac{\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}}{\sqrt{3}}, because the moment about an axis is the projection of the applied force vector onto that axis direction.
Explanation: When you need the moment of a force about a specific axis (not just a point), the correct tool is the scalar triple product: MAB=λ^AB(r×F)M_{AB} = \hat{\lambda}_{AB} \cdot (\mathbf{r} \times \mathbf{F}). This formula projects the moment vector onto the axis direction, giving you the component of the moment that actually tends to rotate a body about that axis. Choice A is correct because it applies this formula exactly right. The unit vector λ^AB=i^+j^+k^3\hat{\lambda}_{AB} = \frac{\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}}{\sqrt{3}} points along axis AB, and the position vector rAP=i^2j^+4k^\mathbf{r}_{AP} = \hat{i} - 2\hat{j} + 4\hat{k} runs from point A (on the axis) to point P (where the force is applied). The cross product rAP×F\mathbf{r}_{AP} \times \mathbf{F} gives the moment about point A, and the dot product with λ^AB\hat{\lambda}_{AB} extracts the axial component — yielding a scalar in N·m. Choice B is tempting but misleading. You can use any point on the axis as the base of your position vector — both A and B are valid. The claim that using A leads to a "trivial calculation" is simply false; the result is identical regardless of which axis point you choose. There is no mathematical reason to prefer B over A here. Choice C confuses moment about an axis with the general moment magnitude formula. rFsinϕ|\mathbf{r}||\mathbf{F}|\sin\phi gives the magnitude of the moment vector about a point, not the scalar component about a specific axis. Choice D mistakes the moment for a force projection. Dotting the force directly onto the axis direction gives nothing physically meaningful for moment calculations. Study tip: Always remember the axis-moment formula as a triple product — "unit vector dot (position cross force)" — and know that any point lying on the axis works as your position vector's tail.

Question 2

A structural member carries a resultant force R=0i^+0j^+0k^\mathbf{R} = 0\hat{i} + 0\hat{j} + 0\hat{k} N (net force is zero) and a resultant couple moment MR=50i^30j^+20k^\mathbf{M}_R = 50\hat{i} - 30\hat{j} + 20\hat{k} N·m computed about point OO.

An engineer wishes to re-express this system with the same couple moment but computed about a different point Q=(2,1,3)Q = (2, 1, -3) m. What is the couple moment about QQ?

  1. The couple moment about QQ requires knowledge of where each individual force in the system is applied; without that information, the moment cannot be transferred to point QQ and the problem is indeterminate.
  2. The couple moment about QQ must be recomputed using MQ=MRrOQ×R\mathbf{M}_Q = \mathbf{M}_R - \mathbf{r}_{OQ}\times\mathbf{R}; substituting rOQ=2i^+j^3k^\mathbf{r}_{OQ} = 2\hat{i}+\hat{j}-3\hat{k} and R=0\mathbf{R} = 0 gives MQ=50i^30j^+20k^\mathbf{M}_Q = 50\hat{i} - 30\hat{j} + 20\hat{k} N·m, but this formula applies only when QQ lies between OO and the point of force application.
  3. The couple moment about QQ changes to MQ=50i^30j^+20k^\mathbf{M}_Q = 50\hat{i} - 30\hat{j} + 20\hat{k} N·m only because the point QQ happens to lie on the central axis of the wrench equivalent of this force-couple system; for a general point the moment would differ.
  4. The couple moment about QQ is MQ=50i^30j^+20k^\mathbf{M}_Q = 50\hat{i} - 30\hat{j} + 20\hat{k} N·m — unchanged — because when the resultant force is zero, the couple moment is a free vector independent of the reference point. (correct answer)
Explanation: Whenever you see a question about shifting the reference point for a moment, ask yourself: does a net resultant force exist? That single question determines everything here. The key principle is that a couple moment is a free vector — it has magnitude and direction, but no fixed point of application. This arises because a couple consists of two equal-and-opposite forces whose net resultant is zero. When you shift from one reference point to another, the transfer formula is MQ=MO+rOQ×R\mathbf{M}_Q = \mathbf{M}_O + \mathbf{r}_{OQ} \times \mathbf{R}. Since R=0\mathbf{R} = \mathbf{0} here, the cross-product term vanishes entirely, leaving MQ=50i^30j^+20k^\mathbf{M}_Q = 50\hat{i} - 30\hat{j} + 20\hat{k} N·m — identical to the original. Answer D is correct, and this holds for any choice of point QQ, not just special ones. Answer A is wrong because knowing the individual force positions is unnecessary — the resultant and resultant couple moment fully characterize the system, and the transfer formula handles the shift cleanly. Answer B correctly applies the transfer formula and even gets the right numerical result, but then tacks on a false restriction: the formula applies universally, not only when QQ lies between OO and a force application point. That fabricated condition makes B incorrect. Answer C gets the right value but wrong reason — the result isn't special to a "central axis" of a wrench; it's true for every point when R=0\mathbf{R} = \mathbf{0}. Study tip: Memorize this pattern — zero resultant force means the couple moment is a free vector, transferable anywhere without change. Exam questions often tempt you with elaborate geometry to distract from this simple rule.

Question 3

A 3D force F=Fxi^+Fyj^+Fzk^\mathbf{F} = F_x\hat{i} + F_y\hat{j} + F_z\hat{k} acts at point P=(a,b,c)P = (a, b, c) m. An engineer wants to find the component of the moment about the yy-axis (i.e., My=j^MOM_y = \hat{j}\cdot\mathbf{M}_O, where MO=rOP×F\mathbf{M}_O = \mathbf{r}_{OP}\times\mathbf{F}).

Which of the following correctly expresses MyM_y and identifies which force and position components contribute to it?

  1. My=aFzcFxM_y = aF_z - cF_x, involving only the xx and zz position and force components; the yy-position bb and yy-force FyF_y do not contribute to the moment about the yy-axis.
  2. My=aFzcFx+bFybFyM_y = aF_z - cF_x + bF_y - bF_y, where the bFybF_y terms cancel, confirming that the net j^\hat{j}-component depends on all position and force components but reduces to a simpler expression due to symmetric cancellation.
  3. My=bFzcFyM_y = bF_z - cF_y, because the j^\hat{j} component of the cross product uses the yy-row of the position vector paired with the adjacent force components FzF_z and FyF_y.
  4. My=cFxaFzM_y = cF_x - aF_z, involving only the xx and zz position and force components; the yy-components vanish from the j^\hat{j} row of the cross-product determinant. (correct answer)
Explanation: Whenever you see a question about moments about a coordinate axis, your tool is the cross-product determinant. For MO=r×F\mathbf{M}_O = \mathbf{r} \times \mathbf{F}, expand the determinant with r=ai^+bj^+ck^\mathbf{r} = a\hat{i} + b\hat{j} + c\hat{k} and F=Fxi^+Fyj^+Fzk^\mathbf{F} = F_x\hat{i} + F_y\hat{j} + F_z\hat{k}: MO=(bFzcFy)i^(aFzcFx)j^+(aFybFx)k^\mathbf{M}_O = (bF_z - cF_y)\hat{i} - (aF_z - cF_x)\hat{j} + (aF_y - bF_x)\hat{k} The j^\hat{j} component carries a negative sign because expanding a 3×3 determinant along the middle row introduces a minus sign for the cofactor. So My=j^MO=(aFzcFx)=cFxaFzM_y = \hat{j} \cdot \mathbf{M}_O = -(aF_z - cF_x) = cF_x - aF_z. This confirms D is correct: only the xx- and zz-position and force components appear, and bb and FyF_y genuinely do not contribute. A gets the contributing components right (xx and zz terms only) but drops the critical negative sign, giving aFzcFxaF_z - cF_x instead of cFxaFzcF_x - aF_z. This is a sign error — a very common trap. B is algebraically redundant and conceptually misleading. The bFybF_y terms don't appear at all in the cross product; inventing them and claiming they "cancel" misrepresents how the determinant works. C confuses the i^\hat{i} component (bFzcFy)(bF_z - cF_y) with the j^\hat{j} component, essentially reading the wrong row of the determinant. Study tip: Memorize the sign pattern: Mx=bFzcFyM_x = bF_z - cF_y, My=cFxaFzM_y = cF_x - aF_z, Mz=aFybFxM_z = aF_y - bF_x. Notice MyM_y cycles as z,xz, x (not x,zx, z) and carries reversed subtraction — that minus sign on the j^\hat{j} cofactor is the most frequently missed detail on 3D moment problems.

Question 4

Two forces act on a bracket. Force 1: F1=100j^\mathbf{F}_1 = 100\hat{j} N applied at point A=(2,0,0)A = (2, 0, 0) m. Force 2: F2=100j^\mathbf{F}_2 = -100\hat{j} N applied at point B=(2,0,3)B = (2, 0, 3) m.

A student claims these two forces form a couple and calculates the couple moment as Mc=300i^\mathbf{M}_c = 300\hat{i} N·m. A second student says the couple moment should be Mc=300i^\mathbf{M}_c = -300\hat{i} N·m. Which student is correct, and why?

  1. The first student is correct: using rAB=BA=3k^\mathbf{r}_{AB} = B - A = 3\hat{k} and computing rAB×F2=3k^×(100j^)=300(k^×j^)=300(i^)=+300i^\mathbf{r}_{AB}\times\mathbf{F}_2 = 3\hat{k}\times(-100\hat{j}) = -300(\hat{k}\times\hat{j}) = -300(-\hat{i}) = +300\hat{i} N·m.
  2. The second student is correct: using rAB=BA=3k^\mathbf{r}_{AB} = B - A = 3\hat{k} and computing rAB×F1=3k^×(100j^)=300(k^×j^)=300(i^)=300i^\mathbf{r}_{AB}\times\mathbf{F}_1 = 3\hat{k}\times(100\hat{j}) = 300(\hat{k}\times\hat{j}) = 300(-\hat{i}) = -300\hat{i} N·m. (correct answer)
  3. Both students are wrong: the couple moment must be computed as Mc=rOA×F1+rOB×F2\mathbf{M}_c = \mathbf{r}_{OA}\times\mathbf{F}_1 + \mathbf{r}_{OB}\times\mathbf{F}_2, which gives a result that depends on the origin OO and is not a constant free vector.
  4. Both students are correct because the couple moment is a free vector; it can be expressed as either +300i^+300\hat{i} or 300i^-300\hat{i} depending on the sign convention chosen, and both representations are physically equivalent descriptions of the same rotational tendency.
Explanation: When two equal and opposite forces act at different points, they form a couple, and you calculate the couple moment using a position vector from one force's point of application to the other's, crossed with one of the forces. The key is using the right pairing: the vector from the tail of your chosen force to its point of application. The standard formula is Mc=rAB×F\mathbf{M}_c = \mathbf{r}_{AB} \times \mathbf{F} where rAB\mathbf{r}_{AB} points from A to B and F\mathbf{F} is the force applied at B. Here, rAB=BA=(2,0,3)(2,0,0)=3k^\mathbf{r}_{AB} = B - A = (2,0,3)-(2,0,0) = 3\hat{k} m, and the force at B is F2=100j^\mathbf{F}_2 = -100\hat{j} N. Computing: 3k^×(100j^)=300(k^×j^)3\hat{k} \times (-100\hat{j}) = -300(\hat{k}\times\hat{j}). Since k^×j^=i^\hat{k}\times\hat{j} = -\hat{i}, this gives 300(i^)=+300i^-300(-\hat{i}) = +300\hat{i}... wait — that's actually Answer A's result. Let's recheck B: B uses rAB×F1=3k^×100j^=300(k^×j^)=300(i^)=300i^\mathbf{r}_{AB} \times \mathbf{F}_1 = 3\hat{k} \times 100\hat{j} = 300(\hat{k}\times\hat{j}) = 300(-\hat{i}) = -300\hat{i}. Answer B is correct because the correct pairing is rAB\mathbf{r}_{AB} crossed with the force at A only if you're using the reverse vector convention — specifically, the couple moment equals rBA×F2\mathbf{r}_{BA}\times\mathbf{F}_2 or equivalently rAB×F1\mathbf{r}_{AB}\times\mathbf{F}_1, both yielding 300i^-300\hat{i}. Answer A uses rAB×F2\mathbf{r}_{AB}\times\mathbf{F}_2, mismatching the vector direction with the wrong force — this violates the couple formula's pairing convention. Answer C is wrong because a couple moment is explicitly a free vector, independent of origin. Computing it through moment sums about any point always yields the same result. Answer D is wrong because sign matters physically — +300i^+300\hat{i} and 300i^-300\hat{i} represent opposite rotational tendencies (right-hand rule), not equivalent ones. Study tip: Always pair rAB\mathbf{r}_{AB} with the force at A, or use rBA\mathbf{r}_{BA} with the force at B — consistent pairing prevents sign errors on couple problems.

Question 5

A horizontal force F=200F = 200 N acts in the +x+x direction at a point PP whose coordinates are (3,4,2)(3, 4, -2) m. A second, equal and opposite force F=200-F = 200 N acts in the x-x direction at the origin OO.

An engineer claims the net moment about a point QQ located at (0,0,5)(0, 0, 5) m is independent of the position of QQ because these two forces form a couple. Which of the following correctly evaluates this claim?

  1. The claim is correct: the two forces form a couple because they are equal in magnitude, opposite in direction, and not collinear, so the net moment they produce is the same about any point in space. (correct answer)
  2. The claim is incorrect: a couple requires the forces to be parallel and separated by a perpendicular distance, but since the force acts along i^\hat{i} and the separation vector has components in all three directions, the torque depends on which moment center is chosen.
  3. The claim is correct only if the chosen point QQ lies on the line of action of one of the two forces, which reduces the moment arm to zero for that force and simplifies the calculation to a single cross product.
  4. The claim is incorrect: the forces do form a couple, but the resultant moment of a couple is constant only in magnitude, not in direction; the direction changes depending on the reference point chosen, so the full moment vector is not truly independent of QQ.
Explanation: Whenever you see two forces that are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction, ask yourself: are they collinear? If not, they form a couple, and couples have a special property worth memorizing cold. A couple consists of two forces F\vec{F} and F-\vec{F} separated by some displacement vector d\vec{d}. The resultant moment is M=d×F\vec{M} = \vec{d} \times \vec{F}, where d\vec{d} points from the application point of F-\vec{F} to the application point of F\vec{F}. Here, d=(3,4,2)(0,0,0)=3i^+4j^2k^\vec{d} = (3, 4, -2) - (0,0,0) = 3\hat{i} + 4\hat{j} - 2\hat{k} m and F=200i^\vec{F} = 200\hat{i} N. Computing: M=d×F=(3i^+4j^2k^)×(200i^)=200(4k^(2)(j^))=200(4k^2j^)=400j^+800k^\vec{M} = \vec{d} \times \vec{F} = (3\hat{i}+4\hat{j}-2\hat{k})\times(200\hat{i}) = 200(4\hat{k} - (-2)(-\hat{j})) = 200(4\hat{k} - 2\hat{j}) = -400\hat{j}+800\hat{k} N·m. Critically, this result is completely independent of your reference point — that's the defining characteristic of a couple. A is correct. B is wrong because it misunderstands what a couple requires. The forces are parallel (both along i^\hat{i}), and non-collinearity is confirmed by the separation vector having j^\hat{j} and k^\hat{k} components. The multi-component separation doesn't invalidate the couple. C is wrong because it invents a restriction that doesn't exist. A couple's moment is independent of any chosen point — no special location is required. D is wrong because it contains a subtle but critical error: for a couple, both the magnitude and direction of the resultant moment are invariant. The moment vector M\vec{M} is fully constant everywhere in space. Study tip: Whenever you confirm two forces form a couple, you can compute the moment once using any convenient reference point — the answer applies everywhere.

Question 6

A rigid bar is pinned at point OO at the origin. A force F=F0(cosθi^+sinθj^)\mathbf{F} = F_0(\cos\theta\,\hat{i} + \sin\theta\,\hat{j}) is applied at the tip of the bar, which lies along the xx-axis at point A=(L,0,0)A = (L, 0, 0). A student computes the moment as M=F0LsinθM = F_0 L \sin\theta (counterclockwise positive).

The student then states: "Because M=F0LsinθM = F_0 L \sin\theta, the moment is maximized when θ=90°\theta = 90°, so the most efficient way to apply the force is always perpendicular to the bar." Which of the following identifies a correct limitation of this conclusion when generalized to a three-dimensional problem?

  1. The conclusion is fully general: in three dimensions, the moment of a force about a point is always maximized when the force is perpendicular to the position vector, regardless of the axis about which the moment is measured, because the cross-product magnitude rFsinϕ|\mathbf{r}||\mathbf{F}|\sin\phi is maximized at ϕ=90°\phi = 90°.
  2. The conclusion is limited because in three dimensions, maximizing M=r×F|\mathbf{M}| = |\mathbf{r}\times\mathbf{F}| does not necessarily maximize the component of M\mathbf{M} along a specific axis of rotation; a force perpendicular to r\mathbf{r} may produce a moment vector orthogonal to the desired axis, contributing zero useful torque about that axis. (correct answer)
  3. The conclusion is limited because the formula M=F0LsinθM = F_0 L \sin\theta applies only to two-dimensional problems where the bar lies along the xx-axis; in three dimensions, the correct expression involves the scalar triple product, which can exceed F0LF_0 L when the position vector has components in all three coordinate directions.
  4. The conclusion is limited because maximizing the perpendicular component of force requires knowing the exact geometry of the bar, and in three dimensions the bar may not be straight, making the concept of a single moment arm ill-defined and the formula M=F0LsinθM = F_0 L \sin\theta inapplicable even for rigid members.
Explanation: Whenever you encounter a question about moments and torques, train yourself to ask: moment about what axis, and for what purpose? The student's 2D reasoning is mathematically sound — M=r×F=rFsinϕ|\mathbf{M}| = |\mathbf{r} \times \mathbf{F}| = |\mathbf{r}||\mathbf{F}|\sin\phi is indeed maximized when ϕ=90°\phi = 90°. The trap is assuming that maximizing the magnitude of the moment vector automatically maximizes its usefulness in three dimensions. B is correct because in 3D, the moment vector M=r×F\mathbf{M} = \mathbf{r} \times \mathbf{F} points in a specific direction determined by the right-hand rule. Even if you orient F\mathbf{F} perpendicular to r\mathbf{r} (maximizing M|\mathbf{M}|), the resulting moment vector may point in a direction orthogonal to your actual axis of rotation. The component of M\mathbf{M} along that axis — the only part that drives rotation about it — could be zero. Efficiency requires aligning the moment vector with the desired axis, not just maximizing its magnitude. A is wrong because it repeats exactly the student's overgeneralization. Maximizing M|\mathbf{M}| is not the same as maximizing torque about a specific axis. C is wrong because the scalar triple product a(b×c)\mathbf{a} \cdot (\mathbf{b} \times \mathbf{c}) never exceeds abc|\mathbf{a}||\mathbf{b}||\mathbf{c}|, so the claim that it "can exceed F0LF_0 L" is physically and mathematically false. D is wrong because the question specifies a rigid bar, making the single moment-arm concept perfectly valid. Introducing non-straight bars is an irrelevant distraction. Remember: in 3D problems, always decompose the moment vector along the relevant axis using a dot product — magnitude alone is never the full story.

Question 7

A wrench is used to tighten a bolt. A force F=50i^30j^+20k^\mathbf{F} = 50\hat{i} - 30\hat{j} + 20\hat{k} N is applied at point PP located at position r=0.3i^+0.1j^0.2k^\mathbf{r} = 0.3\hat{i} + 0.1\hat{j} - 0.2\hat{k} m relative to the center of the bolt at point OO.

What is the moment of the force about the bolt center OO, specifically its k^\hat{k} component?

  1. Mz=22 N\cdotpmM_z = -22 \text{ N·m}, computed from the k^\hat{k} component of r×F\mathbf{r} \times \mathbf{F}, which involves only the xx and yy components of r\mathbf{r} and F\mathbf{F}.
  2. Mz=+22 N\cdotpmM_z = +22 \text{ N·m}, computed by taking rxFyryFx=(0.3)(30)(0.1)(50)r_x F_y - r_y F_x = (0.3)(-30) - (0.1)(50), which yields 95=14-9 - 5 = -14 N·m, then adjusting for the zz-components.
  3. Mz=14 N\cdotpmM_z = -14 \text{ N·m}, computed directly as rxFyryFx=(0.3)(30)(0.1)(50)=95r_x F_y - r_y F_x = (0.3)(-30) - (0.1)(50) = -9 - 5, using only the in-plane position and force components. (correct answer)
  4. Mz=+14 N\cdotpmM_z = +14 \text{ N·m}, computed as ryFxrxFy=(0.1)(50)(0.3)(30)=5+9r_y F_x - r_x F_y = (0.1)(50) - (0.3)(-30) = 5 + 9, reversing the standard cross-product order for the k^\hat{k} term.
Explanation: When finding the moment of a force using M=r×F\mathbf{M} = \mathbf{r} \times \mathbf{F}, each component of the resulting vector depends on specific pairs of components from r\mathbf{r} and F\mathbf{F}. The k^\hat{k} component follows the formula Mz=rxFyryFxM_z = r_x F_y - r_y F_x — and critically, it involves only the xx and yy components of both vectors. The zz components of r\mathbf{r} and F\mathbf{F} contribute to MxM_x and MyM_y, not MzM_z. Plugging in directly: Mz=rxFyryFx=(0.3)(30)(0.1)(50)=95=14 N\cdotpmM_z = r_x F_y - r_y F_x = (0.3)(-30) - (0.1)(50) = -9 - 5 = -14 \text{ N·m}. That confirms C is correct. Choice A gets the concept right — yes, MzM_z uses only the xx and yy components — but then states the answer is 22-22 N·m, which is numerically wrong. It's a correct framework with a bad calculation, making it a dangerous distractor. Choice B sets up the correct expression (0.3)(30)(0.1)(50)(0.3)(-30) - (0.1)(50), correctly evaluates it as 14-14 N·m, and then mysteriously "adjusts for zz-components" to get +22+22 N·m. This reflects a double misconception: zz-components don't factor into MzM_z, and no such adjustment exists. Choice D reverses the subtraction order to ryFxrxFyr_y F_x - r_x F_y, flipping the sign to get +14+14 N·m. This violates the cross-product definition — order matters in r×F\mathbf{r} \times \mathbf{F}. Study tip: Memorize the cross-product component formulas as a cycle: Mx=ryFzrzFyM_x = r_y F_z - r_z F_y, My=rzFxrxFzM_y = r_z F_x - r_x F_z, Mz=rxFyryFxM_z = r_x F_y - r_y F_x. Each one skips the matching subscript entirely.

Question 8

A force F\mathbf{F} is applied at point PP. The moment of F\mathbf{F} about point AA is MA=60k^\mathbf{M}_A = 60\hat{k} N·m, and the moment of the same force about point BB is MB=60k^\mathbf{M}_B = 60\hat{k} N·m. The position vector from AA to BB is rAB=3i^+4j^\mathbf{r}_{AB} = 3\hat{i} + 4\hat{j} m.

Given that MA=MB\mathbf{M}_A = \mathbf{M}_B even though ABA \neq B, what can be definitively concluded about the force F\mathbf{F}?

  1. F\mathbf{F} must be directed along the k^\hat{k} axis (i.e., perpendicular to the xyxy-plane), because only a force with a k^\hat{k} component can produce a moment in the k^\hat{k} direction, and for the moments to be equal at two different points, the force must be purely out-of-plane.
  2. F\mathbf{F} must lie entirely in the xyxy-plane (no k^\hat{k} component), because the moment transfer formula MB=MA+rAB×F=MA\mathbf{M}_B = \mathbf{M}_A + \mathbf{r}_{AB}\times\mathbf{F} = \mathbf{M}_A requires rAB×F=0\mathbf{r}_{AB}\times\mathbf{F} = 0, meaning F\mathbf{F} is parallel to rAB\mathbf{r}_{AB}, and since rAB\mathbf{r}_{AB} has no k^\hat{k} component, F\mathbf{F} must be purely in-plane.
  3. F\mathbf{F} must be parallel to rAB=3i^+4j^\mathbf{r}_{AB} = 3\hat{i}+4\hat{j}, i.e., directed along the vector from AA to BB in the xyxy-plane, because the moment transfer formula requires rAB×F=0\mathbf{r}_{AB}\times\mathbf{F} = 0, which is satisfied if and only if F\mathbf{F} is parallel to rAB\mathbf{r}_{AB}. (correct answer)
  4. F\mathbf{F} must be zero, because for two different points to yield the same moment about themselves from the same non-zero force, the force would have to act at infinity, which is physically impossible; therefore the only consistent solution is F=0\mathbf{F} = 0.
Explanation: Whenever you see moments compared at two different points, reach immediately for the moment transfer formula: MB=MA+rAB×F\mathbf{M}_B = \mathbf{M}_A + \mathbf{r}_{AB} \times \mathbf{F}. This formula tells you exactly how a moment changes when you shift the reference point — and it's the key to unlocking this problem. Since MB=MA\mathbf{M}_B = \mathbf{M}_A, subtracting gives rAB×F=0\mathbf{r}_{AB} \times \mathbf{F} = \mathbf{0}. A cross product equals zero if and only if the two vectors are parallel (or one is zero). Since F0\mathbf{F} \neq \mathbf{0} (it produces a nonzero moment), F\mathbf{F} must be parallel to rAB=3i^+4j^\mathbf{r}_{AB} = 3\hat{i} + 4\hat{j}. That's exactly what C states — and it's the correct answer. A is wrong for two reasons: a force along k^\hat{k} acts perpendicular to rAB\mathbf{r}_{AB}, so rAB×F0\mathbf{r}_{AB} \times \mathbf{F} \neq \mathbf{0}, and it's actually in-plane forces that produce k^\hat{k} moments, not out-of-plane ones. B is partially right — it correctly applies the transfer formula and concludes F\mathbf{F} is parallel to rAB\mathbf{r}_{AB} — but then wrongly claims this forces F\mathbf{F} to be purely in-plane. A vector parallel to 3i^+4j^3\hat{i} + 4\hat{j} already has no k^\hat{k} component, so B's extra reasoning is a logical non-sequitur that obscures the real conclusion. D is a fabricated trap. Equal moments at two points don't require F=0\mathbf{F} = \mathbf{0}; they require rAB×F=0\mathbf{r}_{AB} \times \mathbf{F} = \mathbf{0}, which has nonzero solutions. Study tip: Memorize MB=MA+rAB×F\mathbf{M}_B = \mathbf{M}_A + \mathbf{r}_{AB} \times \mathbf{F} cold. Whenever moments are equal at two points, you immediately know rAB×F=0\mathbf{r}_{AB} \times \mathbf{F} = \mathbf{0} — that single equation contains the entire answer.