Statics and Dynamics Quiz: Friction Applications
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Friction ApplicationsQuestion 1 of 9

A flat belt runs over a fixed cylindrical drum of radius 0.4 m. The belt supports a hanging load of 200 N on one side (tight side, T1T_1) and is held by a force T2T_2 on the other side (slack side). The angle of wrap is 180°180° (π\pi rad). The coefficient of static friction is μs=0.40\mu_s = 0.40.

The load is on the verge of slipping downward (tight side slipping relative to drum). An engineer proposes adding a second identical drum in series — the belt wraps 180°180° around the first drum, then 180°180° around a second drum, then to the operator's hand. Both drums are fixed (non-rotating) and have the same μs=0.40\mu_s = 0.40. What minimum operator force ThandT_{\text{hand}} is now needed to hold the 200 N load on the verge of slipping?

Thand=200/e0.40×π200/3.51456.9 NT_{\text{hand}} = 200 / e^{0.40 \times \pi} \approx 200 / 3.514 \approx 56.9 \text{ N}, the same as with one drum, because the second drum is redundant once the belt is already on the verge of slipping.
Thand=200/e0.40×2π200/12.3516.2 NT_{\text{hand}} = 200 / e^{0.40 \times 2\pi} \approx 200 / 12.35 \approx 16.2 \text{ N}, because the two drums act in series and the total effective angle of wrap is 2×180°=360°2 \times 180° = 360° (2π2\pi rad), multiplying the friction effect.
Thand=200/(2×e0.40×π)200/7.0328.5 NT_{\text{hand}} = 200 / (2 \times e^{0.40 \times \pi}) \approx 200 / 7.03 \approx 28.5 \text{ N}, because two drums share the holding friction equally, so each contributes half the exponential factor and the combined effect is twice the single-drum friction force.
Thand=200/(e0.40π+e0.40π)=200/(2×3.514)28.5 NT_{\text{hand}} = 200 / (e^{0.40\pi} + e^{0.40\pi}) = 200 / (2 \times 3.514) \approx 28.5 \text{ N}, because the belt tension drops by eμβe^{\mu\beta} at the first drum and then again by the same factor at the second drum, and these drops add rather than multiply.
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Statics and Dynamics Quiz

Statics and Dynamics Quiz: Friction Applications

Practice Friction Applications in Statics and Dynamics with focused quiz questions that help you check what you know, review explanations, and build confidence with test-style prompts.

What this quiz covers

This quiz focuses on Friction Applications, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for Statics and Dynamics.

How to use this quiz

Try each quiz question before looking at the correct answer. Use the explanations to review missed ideas, then come back to similar questions until the pattern feels familiar.

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Question 1

A flat belt runs over a fixed cylindrical drum of radius 0.4 m. The belt supports a hanging load of 200 N on one side (tight side, T1T_1) and is held by a force T2T_2 on the other side (slack side). The angle of wrap is 180°180° (π\pi rad). The coefficient of static friction is μs=0.40\mu_s = 0.40.

The load is on the verge of slipping downward (tight side slipping relative to drum). An engineer proposes adding a second identical drum in series — the belt wraps 180°180° around the first drum, then 180°180° around a second drum, then to the operator's hand. Both drums are fixed (non-rotating) and have the same μs=0.40\mu_s = 0.40. What minimum operator force ThandT_{\text{hand}} is now needed to hold the 200 N load on the verge of slipping?

  1. Thand=200/e0.40×π200/3.51456.9 NT_{\text{hand}} = 200 / e^{0.40 \times \pi} \approx 200 / 3.514 \approx 56.9 \text{ N}, the same as with one drum, because the second drum is redundant once the belt is already on the verge of slipping.
  2. Thand=200/e0.40×2π200/12.3516.2 NT_{\text{hand}} = 200 / e^{0.40 \times 2\pi} \approx 200 / 12.35 \approx 16.2 \text{ N}, because the two drums act in series and the total effective angle of wrap is 2×180°=360°2 \times 180° = 360° (2π2\pi rad), multiplying the friction effect. (correct answer)
  3. Thand=200/(2×e0.40×π)200/7.0328.5 NT_{\text{hand}} = 200 / (2 \times e^{0.40 \times \pi}) \approx 200 / 7.03 \approx 28.5 \text{ N}, because two drums share the holding friction equally, so each contributes half the exponential factor and the combined effect is twice the single-drum friction force.
  4. Thand=200/(e0.40π+e0.40π)=200/(2×3.514)28.5 NT_{\text{hand}} = 200 / (e^{0.40\pi} + e^{0.40\pi}) = 200 / (2 \times 3.514) \approx 28.5 \text{ N}, because the belt tension drops by eμβe^{\mu\beta} at the first drum and then again by the same factor at the second drum, and these drops add rather than multiply.
Explanation: When a belt wraps around multiple fixed drums in series, think of each drum as an independent friction brake — the belt tension leaving one drum becomes the input tension entering the next. This is the key insight: the exponential friction factors multiply, not add. Recall the capstan (belt-friction) equation for a single drum: Ttight/Tslack=eμsβT_{\text{tight}} / T_{\text{slack}} = e^{\mu_s \beta}. For your first drum with μs=0.40\mu_s = 0.40 and β=π\beta = \pi, the ratio is e0.40π3.514e^{0.40\pi} \approx 3.514. So the tension drops from 200 N to 200/e0.40π200 / e^{0.40\pi} after drum one. That reduced tension then enters drum two as the new "tight side," and the same equation applies again — dividing by another e0.40πe^{0.40\pi}. The total reduction is e0.40π×e0.40π=e0.40×2πe^{0.40\pi} \times e^{0.40\pi} = e^{0.40 \times 2\pi}, giving Thand=200/e0.8π200/12.3516.2 NT_{\text{hand}} = 200 / e^{0.8\pi} \approx 200 / 12.35 \approx 16.2 \text{ N}. This is answer B, and it's equivalent to saying the total wrap angle is 2π2\pi — a useful shortcut when drums have identical μs\mu_s. A is wrong because the second drum is not redundant — each drum independently reduces tension, so adding drums always helps. C incorrectly divides the exponential factor by 2 rather than squaring it, confusing "sharing" a force with chaining a ratio. D makes the same arithmetic error as C but frames it differently — friction reductions compound multiplicatively through eμβe^{\mu\beta}, never additively. Study tip: When you see drums or capstans in series, always multiply their exponential factors (equivalently, add the wrap angles). The capstan equation is a ratio, so series arrangements behave like compounding interest — exponential, not linear.

Question 2

A 15° self-locking wedge is used to raise a 500 N block resting on a horizontal surface. The coefficient of static friction is μs=0.25\mu_s = 0.25 at all contact surfaces (wedge-block, wedge-floor, and block-wall). A horizontal force PP is applied to the wedge.

Which of the following correctly describes the condition for the wedge to be self-locking (i.e., it will not slide back out when PP is removed), and what is the minimum wedge angle ϕ\phi at which self-locking is lost given μs=0.25\mu_s = 0.25?

  1. Self-locking requires the wedge angle to be less than the friction angle at each interface; with μs=0.25\mu_s = 0.25 the friction angle is ϕf=arctan(0.25)14.0°\phi_f = \arctan(0.25) \approx 14.0°, so a 15° wedge just fails the self-locking condition and will slide back under zero applied load.
  2. Self-locking requires the wedge angle to be less than the friction angle at the single most-critical contact surface; with ϕf14.0°\phi_f \approx 14.0°, the 15° wedge exceeds this limit and is therefore not self-locking, regardless of how many surfaces are active.
  3. Self-locking requires the wedge angle to be less than the sum of friction angles at the two active sliding surfaces; with ϕf14.0°\phi_f \approx 14.0° at each surface, the combined limit is 28°\approx 28°. Since 15°<28°15° < 28°, the wedge is self-locking, but self-locking would be lost if the wedge angle exceeded 28°28°. (correct answer)
  4. Self-locking is independent of the number of active friction surfaces; the criterion is simply μs>tanα\mu_s > \tan\alpha. Since tan15°0.268>0.25\tan15° \approx 0.268 > 0.25, the condition is narrowly violated and the wedge will slide back when PP is removed.
Explanation: When analyzing wedge self-locking, the key insight is that two friction surfaces resist the wedge sliding back out simultaneously. As the wedge tries to back out, friction acts forward at both the wedge-floor interface and the wedge-block interface. This means the total resistance comes from both surfaces combined, not just one. The friction angle at each surface is ϕf=arctan(μs)=arctan(0.25)14.0°\phi_f = \arctan(\mu_s) = \arctan(0.25) \approx 14.0°. For self-locking, the wedge angle α\alpha must satisfy α<ϕf1+ϕf2\alpha < \phi_{f1} + \phi_{f2}, i.e., the wedge angle must be less than the sum of friction angles across the two active sliding surfaces. Here, that combined limit is 14.0°+14.0°=28°14.0° + 14.0° = 28°. Since 15°<28°15° < 28°, the wedge is indeed self-locking, and self-locking would only be lost if α\alpha exceeded 28°28°. This confirms C is correct. Answer A makes the error of comparing the wedge angle against a single friction angle (14°) rather than the sum, incorrectly concluding the wedge fails the self-locking condition. Answer B compounds this mistake by explicitly stating only the "most-critical" single surface matters — this ignores the additive nature of friction at multiple interfaces entirely. Answer D uses a simplified single-surface criterion μs>tanα\mu_s > \tan\alpha without accounting for the two-surface geometry; it also incorrectly frames self-locking as independent of the number of active surfaces. A useful rule of thumb: count your friction surfaces. Every time a wedge backs out, it drags along multiple interfaces simultaneously, so always sum the friction angles from all active sliding contacts before comparing against the wedge angle.

Question 3

Two identical blocks, each of weight W=500 NW = 500 \text{ N}, are stacked on top of each other on a horizontal surface. The coefficient of static friction between all surfaces (block-block and lower block-floor) is μs=0.35\mu_s = 0.35. A horizontal force PP is applied only to the lower block.

As PP is gradually increased from zero, which surface slips first and at what value of PP does slipping begin? (Assume the upper block is not separately restrained.)

  1. The floor surface slips first at P=350 NP = 350 \text{ N}. Since PP is applied to the lower block and the upper block is simply resting on it, the block-block interface carries no horizontal force; the full applied force PP acts against floor friction alone, which reaches its limit μs(2W)=350 N\mu_s(2W) = 350 \text{ N} when the system slides as a unit.
  2. The block-block surface slips first at P=175 NP = 175 \text{ N}. The inter-block friction limit is μsW=0.35×500=175 N\mu_s W = 0.35 \times 500 = 175 \text{ N}, while the floor can sustain up to μs(2W)=350 N\mu_s(2W) = 350 \text{ N}. Because PP is applied only to the lower block, the upper block can receive horizontal force only through the block-block interface; that interface reaches its friction limit before the floor does. (correct answer)
  3. Both surfaces slip simultaneously at P=350 NP = 350 \text{ N}. Because μs\mu_s is identical at both interfaces and the blocks are identical, the ratio of friction force to normal force is the same at each surface, so both surfaces reach their limit at the same applied force.
  4. The block-block surface slips first, but at P=350 NP = 350 \text{ N}, not 175 N. The upper block contributes its weight to the normal force at the block-block interface (N=W=500 NN = W = 500 \text{ N}), but the friction limit there must equal the floor friction limit (350 N350 \text{ N}) for the system to remain consistent, so slipping begins only when PP reaches 350 N.
Explanation: When a force is applied to only one body in a stacked system, your first job is to identify which interface must transmit force to the other body — because that interface will be the friction "bottleneck." Here, the upper block has no applied force. The only way it can experience any horizontal force is through friction at the block-block interface. So as you increase PP, the upper block-lower block interface must transmit whatever horizontal force keeps the upper block accelerating (or attempting to move) with the lower block. Meanwhile, the floor must resist the entire applied force PP. Comparing the two friction limits tells you which surface gives way first. The block-block interface supports a normal force equal to the upper block's weight: NBB=W=500 NN_{BB} = W = 500 \text{ N}, giving a friction limit of μsW=0.35×500=175 N\mu_s W = 0.35 \times 500 = 175 \text{ N}. The floor supports both blocks: Nfloor=2W=1000 NN_{floor} = 2W = 1000 \text{ N}, with a limit of μs(2W)=350 N\mu_s(2W) = 350 \text{ N}. The block-block interface reaches its limit at P=175 NP = 175 \text{ N} — well before the floor does. Answer B is correct. Answer A is wrong because it assumes no horizontal force is transmitted through the block-block interface, which violates Newton's second law for the upper block — something must act on it horizontally. Answer C is wrong because identical μs\mu_s values don't mean identical friction limits; the limits depend on normal force, which differs at each interface. Answer D correctly identifies the block-block surface as the first to slip but miscalculates the threshold, confusing the floor's friction limit with the block-block limit. The key study tip: always draw a free-body diagram for each body separately. The interface that has the smaller normal force — and thus the smaller friction limit — will slip first, regardless of where the external force is applied.

Question 4

A 200 kg crate sits on a 30° incline. The coefficient of static friction between crate and incline is μs=0.40\mu_s = 0.40. A rope parallel to the incline is attached to the crate. Take g=9.81 m/s2g = 9.81 \text{ m/s}^2.

The rope can exert force either up or down the incline. Determine the range of rope tensions TT (in N) for which the crate remains stationary. Which of the following correctly identifies both the minimum tension required to prevent sliding down and the maximum tension before sliding up begins?

  1. Tmin=W(sin30°μscos30°)302 NT_{\min} = W(\sin30° - \mu_s\cos30°) \approx 302 \text{ N} (rope pulls up the slope) and Tmax=W(sin30°+μscos30°)1660 NT_{\max} = W(\sin30° + \mu_s\cos30°) \approx 1660 \text{ N} (rope pulls up the slope), since tan30°0.577>μs=0.40\tan30° \approx 0.577 > \mu_s = 0.40 means friction alone cannot prevent sliding. (correct answer)
  2. Tmin=0 NT_{\min} = 0 \text{ N} because μs=0.40>tan30°0.577\mu_s = 0.40 > \tan30° \approx 0.577, meaning friction alone holds the crate without any rope assistance, and Tmax=W(sin30°+μscos30°)1660 NT_{\max} = W(\sin30° + \mu_s\cos30°) \approx 1660 \text{ N} before sliding up begins.
  3. Tmin=W(sin30°μscos30°)302 NT_{\min} = W(\sin30° - \mu_s\cos30°) \approx 302 \text{ N} (rope pulls up the slope) and Tmax=Wμscos30°681 NT_{\max} = W\mu_s\cos30° \approx 681 \text{ N}, because once the rope tension exceeds the maximum static friction component, the crate begins to slide upward.
  4. Since the crate tends to slide down, the rope must pull up the slope; the required tension is simply the net down-slope force with no friction contribution: Tmin=Wsin30°=981 NT_{\min} = W\sin30° = 981 \text{ N}, and the maximum before sliding up is Tmax=W(sin30°+μscos30°)1660 NT_{\max} = W(\sin30° + \mu_s\cos30°) \approx 1660 \text{ N}.
Explanation: Whenever you see a friction-on-an-incline problem with a rope, your first instinct should be to check whether friction alone can hold the object. The test for this is simple: compare tanθ\tan\theta to μs\mu_s. If tanθ>μs\tan\theta > \mu_s, the incline is "too steep" for friction alone, and the rope must pull upward to prevent sliding down. Here, tan30°0.577>μs=0.40\tan30° \approx 0.577 > \mu_s = 0.40, so friction alone is insufficient — the crate will slide down without the rope. To find the minimum tension, balance forces along the incline with friction acting up the slope (opposing the tendency to slide down): Tmin=Wsin30°μsWcos30°=200(9.81)(0.5)0.40(200)(9.81)(0.866)981679302 NT_{\min} = W\sin30° - \mu_s W\cos30° = 200(9.81)(0.5) - 0.40(200)(9.81)(0.866) \approx 981 - 679 \approx 302 \text{ N}. For the maximum tension, the crate now tends to slide up, so friction reverses direction and acts down: Tmax=Wsin30°+μsWcos30°981+6791660 NT_{\max} = W\sin30° + \mu_s W\cos30° \approx 981 + 679 \approx 1660 \text{ N}. This confirms A is correct. Choice B incorrectly claims μs>tan30°\mu_s > \tan30°, which reverses the inequality — a critical arithmetic error that leads to a wrong physical conclusion. Choice C correctly finds TminT_{\min} but botches TmaxT_{\max} by using only the friction term, forgetting that the rope must also overcome gravity along the slope. Choice D ignores friction entirely when finding TminT_{\min}, as if the surface were frictionless. Study tip: Always draw a free-body diagram and explicitly ask "which way does friction act?" — it opposes impending motion, and that direction flips between the two limiting cases.

Question 5

A block of mass mm is placed on a rough incline of angle θ\theta. A horizontal force FF is applied to the block. The coefficient of static friction is μs\mu_s.

When the horizontal force FF is directed into the slope (pushing the block against the incline) rather than parallel to it, which of the following correctly describes the effect on the normal force, the maximum static friction, and the equilibrium condition along the slope compared to the case of no horizontal force?

  1. The normal force increases to N=mgcosθ+FsinθN = mg\cos\theta + F\sin\theta, raising maximum friction to μs(mgcosθ+Fsinθ)\mu_s(mg\cos\theta + F\sin\theta). The component of FF along the slope is FcosθF\cos\theta directed down the slope, so no-slip requires μs(mgcosθ+Fsinθ)mgsinθ+Fcosθ\mu_s(mg\cos\theta + F\sin\theta) \geq mg\sin\theta + F\cos\theta. (correct answer)
  2. The normal force increases to N=mgcosθ+FsinθN = mg\cos\theta + F\sin\theta, raising maximum friction to μs(mgcosθ+Fsinθ)\mu_s(mg\cos\theta + F\sin\theta). However, FF is horizontal and the slope reaction is perpendicular to the surface, so FF has no component along the slope; no-slip requires only μs(mgcosθ+Fsinθ)mgsinθ\mu_s(mg\cos\theta + F\sin\theta) \geq mg\sin\theta.
  3. The horizontal force does not affect the normal force because contact pressure is set by the block's weight alone; friction remains μsmgcosθ\mu_s mg\cos\theta. However, FcosθF\cos\theta acts as an additional down-slope driving force, making equilibrium harder to maintain.
  4. Resolving FF into slope coordinates, the along-slope component FcosθF\cos\theta acts up the slope (opposing the tendency to slide down) while the perpendicular component FsinθF\sin\theta reduces the normal force. Therefore N=mgcosθFsinθN = mg\cos\theta - F\sin\theta and the net down-slope force decreases to mgsinθFcosθmg\sin\theta - F\cos\theta.
Explanation: Whenever a force is applied to a block on an incline, your first move should be to resolve every force into slope-parallel and slope-perpendicular components, then apply equilibrium in each direction separately. Mixing up which component goes which direction is the most common error on these problems. A horizontal force FF directed into the slope has two components in slope coordinates: FsinθF\sin\theta perpendicular to the surface (pressing the block harder against the incline) and FcosθF\cos\theta parallel to the surface. To determine the direction of the parallel component, sketch the geometry: a horizontal vector pointing into a slope that rises to the right points partly downhill along the surface, so FcosθF\cos\theta acts down the slope. The normal force therefore becomes N=mgcosθ+FsinθN = mg\cos\theta + F\sin\theta, raising maximum static friction to μs(mgcosθ+Fsinθ)\mu_s(mg\cos\theta + F\sin\theta). For no-slip, this friction must resist both the gravitational down-slope component and the new FcosθF\cos\theta driver, giving μs(mgcosθ+Fsinθ)mgsinθ+Fcosθ\mu_s(mg\cos\theta + F\sin\theta) \geq mg\sin\theta + F\cos\theta. That is exactly answer A, the correct choice. Answer B makes the right call on the normal force but incorrectly claims FF has no along-slope component — every force not perpendicular to the slope has a parallel component once you resolve it. Answer C wrongly assumes the normal force is unaffected by FF; any force with a perpendicular-to-surface component absolutely changes NN. Answer D reverses the sign of the perpendicular component (subtracting instead of adding) and flips the along-slope direction, both stemming from a faulty geometry sketch. Strategy tip: Always draw the incline, lay the force vector on it, and trace the perpendicular and parallel projections explicitly — sign errors almost always come from skipping this step.

Question 6

A rope is wrapped n=3n = 3 full turns around a capstan (cylindrical post). The coefficient of static friction between rope and capstan is μs=0.25\mu_s = 0.25. A dock worker holds the slack end of the rope with a maximum force of 100 N to resist a large ship's pull on the tight end.

The ship's engine exerts a steady pull on the tight end of the rope. What is the maximum load the rope can hold, and if the worker doubles the number of turns to n=6n = 6 while keeping their holding force at 100 N, by what factor does the maximum holdable load increase?

  1. With n=3n = 3 turns, β=3π\beta = 3\pi rad (one turn = π\pi rad); T1=100e0.25×3π100×10.6=1,060 NT_1 = 100 \cdot e^{0.25 \times 3\pi} \approx 100 \times 10.6 = 1{,}060 \text{ N}. Doubling to n=6n = 6 gives β=6π\beta = 6\pi rad, so the load increases by a factor of e0.25×3π10.6e^{0.25 \times 3\pi} \approx 10.6.
  2. With n=3n = 3 turns, β=6π\beta = 6\pi rad; T1=100e0.25×6π11,100 NT_1 = 100 \cdot e^{0.25 \times 6\pi} \approx 11{,}100 \text{ N}. Doubling the turns doubles the angle, so T1=2T122,200 NT_1' = 2T_1 \approx 22{,}200 \text{ N}; the load increases by a factor of exactly 2, since the exponential argument scales linearly with turns.
  3. With n=3n = 3 turns, β=6π\beta = 6\pi rad; T1=100e0.25×6π11,100 NT_1 = 100 \cdot e^{0.25 \times 6\pi} \approx 11{,}100 \text{ N}. Doubling to n=6n = 6 gives β=12π\beta' = 12\pi rad, so T1=100e0.25×12π1,230,000 NT_1' = 100 \cdot e^{0.25 \times 12\pi} \approx 1{,}230{,}000 \text{ N}; the net increase is additive: T1T11,219,000 NT_1' - T_1 \approx 1{,}219{,}000 \text{ N}, not a simple multiplicative factor.
  4. With n=3n = 3 turns, β=6π\beta = 6\pi rad; T1=100e0.25×6π11,100 NT_1 = 100 \cdot e^{0.25 \times 6\pi} \approx 11{,}100 \text{ N}. Adding 3 more turns increases the wrap angle by 6π6\pi rad, so the additional multiplicative factor is e0.25×6π111e^{0.25 \times 6\pi} \approx 111, and the maximum holdable load increases by a factor of approximately 111. (correct answer)
Explanation: Whenever you see a capstan or rope-wrap problem, your anchor concept is the capstan (Euler-Eytelwein) equation: Thigh=TloweμsβT_\text{high} = T_\text{low} \cdot e^{\mu_s \beta}, where β\beta is the total wrap angle in radians. The critical conversion to internalize: one full turn = 2π2\pi radians, not π\pi. With n=3n = 3 turns, β=3×2π=6π\beta = 3 \times 2\pi = 6\pi rad. Plugging in: T1=100e0.25×6π100×11111,100 NT_1 = 100 \cdot e^{0.25 \times 6\pi} \approx 100 \times 111 \approx 11{,}100 \text{ N}. When the worker doubles to n=6n = 6 turns, β=12π\beta' = 12\pi rad. The new load is T1=100e0.25×12πT_1' = 100 \cdot e^{0.25 \times 12\pi}. Because exponent rules give e0.25×12π=e0.25×6πe0.25×6πe^{0.25 \times 12\pi} = e^{0.25 \times 6\pi} \cdot e^{0.25 \times 6\pi}, the load multiplies by an additional factor of e0.25×6π111e^{0.25 \times 6\pi} \approx 111. Answer D captures this correctly. A fails immediately by using 2π×n/2=nπ2\pi \times n / 2 = n\pi—treating one turn as π\pi rad instead of 2π2\pi rad. This halves every exponent and dramatically underestimates the friction effect. B correctly computes the initial load but then claims doubling the turns only doubles the holdable force. This confuses linear scaling with exponential scaling—the relationship is multiplicative through the exponent, not additive. C gets both loads right numerically (11,100\approx 11{,}100 N and 1,230,000\approx 1{,}230{,}000 N) but then describes the increase as additive rather than multiplicative. The question asks for a factor, and T1/T1111T_1'/T_1 \approx 111 is the correct frame. Your study tip: always convert turns to radians using 2π2\pi per turn, and remember that adding wraps multiplies the holdable load exponentially—doubling turns doesn't double the load, it squares the load ratio.

Question 7

A flat belt drives a pulley. The belt is on the verge of slipping, the angle of wrap on the smaller pulley is β=160°2.79 rad\beta = 160° \approx 2.79 \text{ rad}, and the coefficient of static friction between belt and pulley is μs=0.35\mu_s = 0.35. The tight-side tension is T1=800 NT_1 = 800 \text{ N}, giving a flat-belt slack-side tension of T2=800/e0.35×2.79301 NT_2 = 800/e^{0.35 \times 2.79} \approx 301 \text{ N} and a net tangential force of 499 N\approx 499 \text{ N}.

An engineer proposes increasing the power transmitted by replacing the flat belt with a V-belt whose groove half-angle is α=18°\alpha = 18°, keeping all other parameters (μs\mu_s, β\beta, T1T_1) identical. Which of the following correctly computes the new slack-side tension T2T_2 and describes the resulting change in net tangential force on the pulley?

  1. The effective friction coefficient becomes μeff=μs/sinα=0.35/sin18°1.132\mu_{\text{eff}} = \mu_s/\sin\alpha = 0.35/\sin18° \approx 1.132, so T1/T2=e1.132×2.79e3.1623.6T_1/T_2 = e^{1.132 \times 2.79} \approx e^{3.16} \approx 23.6. The slack-side tension drops to T234 NT_2 \approx 34 \text{ N}, raising the net tangential force to 766 N\approx 766 \text{ N} — a large increase over the flat-belt value of 499 N. (correct answer)
  2. The effective friction coefficient becomes μeff=μssinα0.35×0.3090.108\mu_{\text{eff}} = \mu_s \cdot \sin\alpha \approx 0.35 \times 0.309 \approx 0.108, so T1/T2=e0.108×2.79e0.3021.35T_1/T_2 = e^{0.108 \times 2.79} \approx e^{0.302} \approx 1.35. The slack-side tension rises to T2593 NT_2 \approx 593 \text{ N}, substantially decreasing the net tangential force to only 207 N\approx 207 \text{ N}.
  3. The V-belt groove wedges the belt radially but does not alter the friction relationship in the capstan equation; the effective friction coefficient remains μs=0.35\mu_s = 0.35, so T2301 NT_2 \approx 301 \text{ N} and the net tangential force is unchanged at 499 N\approx 499 \text{ N}.
  4. The effective friction coefficient becomes μeff=μs/cosα=0.35/cos18°0.368\mu_{\text{eff}} = \mu_s/\cos\alpha = 0.35/\cos18° \approx 0.368, so T1/T2=e0.368×2.79e1.0272.79T_1/T_2 = e^{0.368 \times 2.79} \approx e^{1.027} \approx 2.79. The slack-side tension drops to T2287 NT_2 \approx 287 \text{ N}, giving a marginally increased net tangential force of 513 N\approx 513 \text{ N}.
Explanation: Whenever you see a question comparing flat belts to V-belts, the key insight is understanding why V-belts transmit more power: the groove geometry creates a wedging action that amplifies the normal force on the belt, effectively increasing friction without changing μs\mu_s. For a V-belt, the belt wedges into a groove with half-angle α\alpha, so the two groove faces each push on the belt with a normal force NN. The vertical components must support the radial belt load, giving a resultant normal force proportional to 1/sinα1/\sin\alpha rather than simply the radial load itself. This amplifies friction, so the modified capstan equation uses an effective friction coefficient μeff=μs/sinα\mu_{\text{eff}} = \mu_s/\sin\alpha. With α=18°\alpha = 18°: μeff=0.35/sin18°0.35/0.3091.132\mu_{\text{eff}} = 0.35/\sin 18° \approx 0.35/0.309 \approx 1.132. The tension ratio becomes T1/T2=e1.132×2.79e3.1623.6T_1/T_2 = e^{1.132 \times 2.79} \approx e^{3.16} \approx 23.6, so T2=800/23.634 NT_2 = 800/23.6 \approx 34 \text{ N}, and the net tangential force is 80034766 N800 - 34 \approx 766 \text{ N}. This is choice A, the correct answer. Choice B incorrectly multiplies μs\mu_s by sinα\sin\alpha instead of dividing, which would actually reduce friction — the opposite of what a V-groove does. Choice C ignores the groove geometry entirely, wrongly treating the V-belt as a flat belt. Choice D divides by cosα\cos\alpha instead of sinα\sin\alpha, confusing the trigonometric relationship; cos18°\cos 18° is close to 1, so it yields almost no improvement over the flat belt. Study tip: Memorize the V-belt formula as μeff=μs/sinα\mu_{\text{eff}} = \mu_s/\sin\alpha — the small half-angle (small sinα\sin\alpha) means large effective friction. The shallower the groove, the greater the wedging amplification.

Question 8

A band brake consists of a flat belt wrapped 270° (3π/23\pi/2 rad) around a rotating drum of radius 0.3 m. One end of the band is pinned to a fixed support; the other end is attached to a lever arm. The coefficient of kinetic friction is μk=0.30\mu_k = 0.30. The drum rotates clockwise when viewed from the front.

An operator applies a 50 N force at the end of a 0.6 m lever arm to tighten the band. When the geometry is such that the tight side of the belt is connected directly to the lever pivot end (making the brake self-energizing), which of the following correctly computes the braking torque on the drum?

  1. The 50 N applied force acts directly as the net belt force on the drum; braking torque =F×r=50×0.3=15 N\cdotpm= F \times r = 50 \times 0.3 = 15 \text{ N·m}, since in a self-energizing configuration the lever arm and exponential friction factor cancel and the drum radius alone sets the torque.
  2. Taking moments about the lever pivot gives tight-side tension T1=50×0.6/0.3=100 NT_1 = 50 \times 0.6 / 0.3 = 100 \text{ N}; this is the larger tension, so T2=T1/eμkβ=100/e0.30×3π/2100/4.1124.3 NT_2 = T_1 / e^{\mu_k \beta} = 100/e^{0.30 \times 3\pi/2} \approx 100/4.11 \approx 24.3 \text{ N}; braking torque =(T1T2)×r75.7×0.322.7 N\cdotpm= (T_1 - T_2) \times r \approx 75.7 \times 0.3 \approx 22.7 \text{ N·m}.
  3. The lever moment determines the slack-side tension T2=50×0.6/0.3=100 NT_2 = 50 \times 0.6 / 0.3 = 100 \text{ N}; because the tight side is connected to the pivot in the self-energizing arrangement, T1=T2eμkβ=100×e0.30×3π/2411 NT_1 = T_2 \cdot e^{\mu_k \beta} = 100 \times e^{0.30 \times 3\pi/2} \approx 411 \text{ N}; braking torque =(411100)×0.393.3 N\cdotpm= (411 - 100) \times 0.3 \approx 93.3 \text{ N·m}. (correct answer)
  4. The lever moment gives T2=50×0.6/0.3=100 NT_2 = 50 \times 0.6 / 0.3 = 100 \text{ N}; the wrap angle for 270° is β=π\beta = \pi rad (half-turn equivalent for a self-energizing brake), so T1=100×e0.30×π100×2.57257 NT_1 = 100 \times e^{0.30 \times \pi} \approx 100 \times 2.57 \approx 257 \text{ N}; braking torque =(257100)×0.347.1 N\cdotpm= (257 - 100) \times 0.3 \approx 47.1 \text{ N·m}.
Explanation: Whenever you see a band brake problem, your first job is identifying which end of the belt connects to the lever pivot — this determines whether the brake is self-energizing and which tension the lever controls directly. In a self-energizing configuration, the tight side connects to the lever pivot. This means friction amplifies the clamping force rather than working against it. Your lever moment equation gives you the slack-side tension T2T_2, and then friction multiplies it up to T1T_1. Taking moments about the lever pivot: T2=50×0.60.3=100 NT_2 = \frac{50 \times 0.6}{0.3} = 100 \text{ N}. The belt friction relationship for impending slip is T1=T2eμkβT_1 = T_2 \cdot e^{\mu_k \beta}, where β=3π2\beta = \frac{3\pi}{2} rad. So T1=100×e0.30×1.5π100×4.11411 NT_1 = 100 \times e^{0.30 \times 1.5\pi} \approx 100 \times 4.11 \approx 411 \text{ N}. Braking torque is (T1T2)×r=311×0.393.3 Nm(T_1 - T_2) \times r = 311 \times 0.3 \approx 93.3 \text{ N}\cdot\text{m}. That's C. A is wrong because it ignores the belt friction relationship entirely — the exponential factor does not cancel; it's precisely what makes band brakes powerful. B correctly sets up the lever moment but misidentifies which end produces that tension: in a self-energizing brake, the lever controls T2T_2 (slack side), not T1T_1 (tight side). Assigning 100 N to T1T_1 and dividing gives the anti-energizing case. D uses the correct tension assignment but substitutes β=π\beta = \pi instead of the stated 270° = 3π2\frac{3\pi}{2} — a unit/conversion error. A reliable strategy: always sketch the drum rotation direction, mark which belt end is "peeling off" (slack) versus being "dragged in" (tight), and trace from there to the lever to identify which tension the applied force directly sets.

Question 9

A 5° wedge (α=5°\alpha = 5°) is used to level a heavy machine. The coefficient of static friction at all surfaces is μs=0.15\mu_s = 0.15, giving a friction angle ϕf=arctan(0.15)8.53°\phi_f = \arctan(0.15) \approx 8.53°.

After the machine is leveled and the driving force is removed, an engineer claims the wedge will remain in place without any locking device. A second engineer disputes this, arguing that a small tap will cause the wedge to slide out. Which analysis is correct, and what is the key criterion that resolves the dispute?

  1. The first engineer is correct. Since the wedge angle α=5°\alpha = 5° is less than the friction angle ϕf8.53°\phi_f \approx 8.53° at the single most-loaded interface, self-locking is guaranteed at every individual contact, and the wedge cannot slide back under any load less than the original driving force.
  2. The second engineer is correct. Because the wedge has two friction-active surfaces, the self-locking condition requires α<ϕf\alpha < \phi_f at each individual surface; since ϕf8.53°>5°\phi_f \approx 8.53° > 5°, self-locking holds at each surface individually, but the two surfaces together produce a net resultant that overcomes friction, so the wedge slides out spontaneously.
  3. The second engineer is correct. The net friction force on the wedge upon removal of PP reverses direction, and since the reversed friction force must now act against the load rather than with it, the effective friction coefficient is halved, leaving μeff=0.075\mu_{eff} = 0.075, which is insufficient to prevent back-sliding for any wedge angle greater than arctan(0.075)4.3°\arctan(0.075) \approx 4.3°.
  4. The first engineer is correct. The self-locking criterion for a two-surface wedge is α<ϕf1+ϕf2\alpha < \phi_{f1} + \phi_{f2}; with ϕf1=ϕf28.53°\phi_{f1} = \phi_{f2} \approx 8.53°, the combined limit is 17.06°\approx 17.06°, which exceeds the 5° wedge angle, so the wedge is self-locking and will remain in place without external force. (correct answer)
Explanation: Wedge self-locking questions hinge on one critical insight: when a wedge has two friction-active surfaces, the friction resistance from both interfaces combines to resist back-sliding. The correct self-locking criterion is therefore α<ϕf1+ϕf2\alpha < \phi_{f1} + \phi_{f2}, not simply α<ϕf\alpha < \phi_f at a single surface. Here, both surfaces share the same friction angle ϕf1=ϕf2=arctan(0.15)8.53°\phi_{f1} = \phi_{f2} = \arctan(0.15) \approx 8.53°. The combined limit is 8.53°+8.53°=17.06°8.53° + 8.53° = 17.06°. Since the wedge angle α=5°\alpha = 5° is well below this threshold, the wedge is self-locking — the first engineer is correct, and D is the right answer. Choice A reaches the correct conclusion but for the wrong reason. Checking only the "single most-loaded interface" ignores that back-sliding must overcome friction at both surfaces simultaneously. The reasoning is incomplete even if the conclusion happens to be right here. Choice B inverts the logic entirely. It correctly notes that ϕf>α\phi_f > \alpha at each individual surface, but then incorrectly claims the two surfaces combine against self-locking. In reality, friction forces from multiple surfaces combine in favor of locking. Choice C introduces a fictitious "effective friction coefficient" that gets halved when the driving force is removed. No such halving occurs — friction capacity at each surface remains μs\mu_s regardless of load direction reversal. This is a fabricated rule. Study tip: Whenever you see a multi-surface wedge, always sum the friction angles from all sliding interfaces: self-locking requires α<ϕfi\alpha < \sum \phi_{fi}. Applying the single-surface rule to a two-surface problem is the most common trap on wedge questions.