SEE - Special Enrollment Exam Quiz: Tax Exempt Organizations
15 questions · exam conditions
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Tax Exempt OrganizationsQuestion 1 of 15

For 2025, which of the following is correct regarding the definition of an unrelated trade or business under IRC § 513?

A trade or business that sells merchandise received by gift or contribution is not an unrelated trade or business only if the merchandise is sold to the organization's members rather than to the general public and the sales price does not exceed fair market value.
A trade or business is not an unrelated trade or business if it is carried on primarily for the convenience of the organization's members, but this exception does not apply to a business carried on for the convenience of its students or patients.
A trade or business is not an unrelated trade or business if substantially all of the work in carrying it on is performed for the organization without compensation, even if the business is regularly carried on and produces a profit.
A trade or business is substantially related to an organization's exempt purpose only if it is not regularly carried on and is conducted without any paid staff, because the relationship must be judged by the manner in which the activity is conducted.
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SEE - Special Enrollment Exam Quiz

SEE - Special Enrollment Exam Quiz: Tax Exempt Organizations

Practice Tax Exempt Organizations in SEE - Special Enrollment Exam with focused quiz questions that help you check what you know, review explanations, and build confidence with test-style prompts.

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This quiz focuses on Tax Exempt Organizations, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for SEE - Special Enrollment Exam.

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Question 1

For 2025, which of the following is correct regarding the definition of an unrelated trade or business under IRC § 513?

  1. A trade or business that sells merchandise received by gift or contribution is not an unrelated trade or business only if the merchandise is sold to the organization's members rather than to the general public and the sales price does not exceed fair market value.
  2. A trade or business is not an unrelated trade or business if it is carried on primarily for the convenience of the organization's members, but this exception does not apply to a business carried on for the convenience of its students or patients.
  3. A trade or business is not an unrelated trade or business if substantially all of the work in carrying it on is performed for the organization without compensation, even if the business is regularly carried on and produces a profit. (correct answer)
  4. A trade or business is substantially related to an organization's exempt purpose only if it is not regularly carried on and is conducted without any paid staff, because the relationship must be judged by the manner in which the activity is conducted.
Explanation: Under IRC § 513(a) and Treas. Reg. § 1.513-1, Choice C is correct. Section 513(a)(1) excludes a business in which substantially all the work is performed for the organization without compensation; regularity and profitability do not make it unrelated. Choice B misstates the convenience exception: § 513(a)(2) also covers students, patients, officers, and employees, not only members. Choice A misstates the donated-goods exception: § 513(a)(3) applies to merchandise substantially all of which was received by gift or contribution, and it is not limited to sales to members or to prices at or below fair market value. Choice D misstates the substantially-related test: the test is whether the activity contributes importantly to the exempt purpose, not whether it is irregular or volunteer-run.

Question 2

For 2025, which of the following is correct regarding the excise taxes imposed on private foundations under Chapter 42?

  1. The tax on taxable expenditures under § 4945 is imposed on the foundation manager, and the private foundation is liable only if the manager fails to agree to a correction of the expenditure.
  2. An act of self-dealing between a private foundation and a disqualified person gives rise to an excise tax imposed on the disqualified person, and a foundation manager may be separately taxed for knowing participation in the act. (correct answer)
  3. A supporting organization described in § 509(a)(3) is not a private foundation and is therefore exempt from every excise tax imposed by Chapter 42 of the Code, including the tax on excess benefit transactions.
  4. The tax on excess business holdings under § 4943 is imposed on the disqualified persons holding the excess business holdings, rather than on the private foundation, because the foundation is merely the passive recipient of the holdings.
Explanation: Under IRC § 4941(a), Choice B is correct. The self-dealing tax is payable by the disqualified person who engages in the act, and a foundation manager who knowingly participates may be subject to a separate tax. Choice A misstates § 4945: the taxable-expenditure tax is imposed on the private foundation, with a separate limited tax on foundation managers; the foundation's liability does not depend on a manager's refusal to correct. Choice C is wrong because a § 509(a)(3) supporting organization is not a private foundation, but it is not exempt from every Chapter 42 provision; for example, the excess benefit transaction tax under § 4958 can apply to applicable tax-exempt organizations. Choice D misstates § 4943: the excess business holdings tax is imposed on the private foundation, not on the disqualified persons holding the excess holdings.

Question 3

For 2025, which of the following is correct regarding the limits on political and legislative activities of a § 501(c)(3) public charity?

  1. It may not attempt to influence legislation under any circumstances, but it may participate in political campaigns through a separate segregated fund if no exempt-purpose funds are used for the campaign activity.
  2. It may participate in a nonpartisan voter registration drive, but it may not publish a neutral voter education guide presenting all candidates' positions because any mention of a candidate is prohibited campaign intervention.
  3. It is absolutely prohibited from participating in any political campaign for or against a candidate for public office, and it may engage in legislative lobbying only to an insubstantial extent unless it elects the expenditure test under § 501(h). (correct answer)
  4. It may engage in unlimited legislative lobbying if the lobbying directly furthers its exempt purpose, and it may participate in political campaigns as long as the participation is not the organization's primary activity.
Explanation: Under IRC § 501(c)(3) and § 501(h), Choice C is correct. The campaign-intervention ban is absolute, and lobbying is permitted only if it is not a substantial part of the organization's activities unless the organization elects the § 501(h) expenditure limits. Choice B is wrong because nonpartisan voter education, including a neutral guide presenting all candidates' positions, is not campaign intervention. Choice A is wrong because the campaign ban is absolute, and a § 501(c)(3) may not use a separate segregated fund to engage in activity it cannot conduct directly. Choice D is wrong because a § 501(c)(3) public charity is not entitled to unlimited lobbying, and campaign participation is prohibited even if it is not the organization's primary activity.

Question 4

For 2025, which of the following is correct regarding the annual information return requirements for tax-exempt organizations?

  1. A church described in § 501(c)(3) must file Form 990 unless it has no gross receipts, but it may omit Schedule B because the names and addresses of contributors are confidential.
  2. A private foundation is required to file Form 990-PF, and the return is open to public inspection, while a church described in § 501(c)(3) is generally excused from filing Form 990. (correct answer)
  3. An organization with unrelated business taxable income must file Form 990-T and attach it to its Form 990, and the Form 990-T is then open to public inspection as part of the Form 990.
  4. A private foundation must file Form 990-PF, but it is not required to make the return available for public inspection because the form contains the names of its managers and substantial contributors.
Explanation: Under IRC § 6033(a)(3)(A)(i) and § 6104(d), Choice B is correct. Private foundations file Form 990-PF and their annual returns are open to public inspection, while churches are among the organizations excepted from the Form 990 filing requirement. Choice A misstates the church exception: the exception is not conditioned on having no gross receipts. Choice C misstates the filing mechanics: Form 990-T is a separate return and is not attached to Form 990. Choice D misstates the disclosure rule: Form 990-PF is open to public inspection under § 6104(d), and the presence of manager or contributor information does not eliminate that obligation.

Question 5

For 2025, which of the following is correct regarding the treatment of royalties and rents under the unrelated business income tax?

  1. Royalties are generally excluded from unrelated business taxable income, but payments for the use of an organization's name or logo may be treated as unrelated business income if the organization provides significant services in connection with the arrangement. (correct answer)
  2. Rents from real property are always excluded from unrelated business taxable income, regardless of whether the property is debt-financed or the rent is determined by reference to the tenant's net profits.
  3. Payments received for the use of an organization's name or logo are generally excluded as royalties if the organization is described in § 501(c)(3), but are generally taxable if the organization is described in § 501(c)(6).
  4. Advertising income from an exempt organization's periodical is treated as rent from personal property and is excluded from unrelated business taxable income if the periodical's editorial content furthers the organization's exempt purpose.
Explanation: Under IRC § 512(b)(2) and § 514, Choice A is correct. Royalties are excluded from unrelated business taxable income, but the exclusion does not cover payments that are in substance compensation for services; significant services in a licensing arrangement can cause the payments to be treated as unrelated business income. Choice B is wrong because rents from debt-financed property are generally included under § 514, and rents based on a tenant's net profits are not within the real-property rent exclusion of § 512(b)(3). Choice C is wrong because royalty treatment does not depend on the paragraph of § 501(c) under which the organization is exempt; it depends on the nature of the payment. Choice D is wrong because advertising income from a periodical is not rent from personal property; it is subject to the special periodical-income allocation rules and may be unrelated business income.

Question 6

A church that is exempt under IRC § 501(c)(3) operates on a calendar year. For 2025, the church had gross receipts of $180,000 and total assets of $600,000 at the end of its taxable year. The church has no unrelated business income and is not a private foundation.

Which of the following is correct regarding the church's Form 990 filing obligation for 2025?

  1. The church must file Form 990 because its total assets at the end of the taxable year exceed $500,000.
  2. The church may file Form 990-EZ because its gross receipts for the year are less than $200,000.
  3. The church must file Form 990-N because it is not a private foundation and its gross receipts do not exceed $200,000.
  4. The church is not required to file any Form 990-series information return for 2025 because churches are excepted from the annual return requirement. (correct answer)
Explanation: IRC § 6033(a)(3)(A)(i) excepts churches, their integrated auxiliaries, and conventions or associations of churches from the annual information-return requirement (the Form 990 series). Because the church has no unrelated business income, it is not required to file Form 990-T either. Choice D is correct. Choice A applies the general rule that an organization with year-end total assets over $500,000 must file the full Form 990, but the statutory church exception overrides the general rule. Choice B applies the Form 990-EZ gross-receipts threshold without recognizing that churches are excepted from the Form 990 series entirely. Choice C is wrong because Form 990-N (e-Postcard) is limited to organizations whose gross receipts are normally $50,000 or less, and the church has no filing obligation in any event.

Question 7

A symphony orchestra that is exempt under IRC § 501(c)(3) publishes a monthly magazine and holds an annual gala. In 2025, an automobile dealership paid the orchestra $20,000 to place a half-page advertisement in the magazine promoting its vehicles for sale. A law firm paid the orchestra $15,000 to be listed as the presenting sponsor of the gala; in return, the law firm's name and logo appear on banners at the gala, but the firm receives no advertising message and no other benefit.

Which of the following correctly describes the treatment of the two payments for unrelated business income tax purposes?

  1. Both payments are excluded from unrelated business taxable income because the magazine and the gala advance the orchestra's exempt purposes.
  2. The $20,000 advertising payment is included in unrelated business taxable income; the $15,000 sponsorship payment is a qualified sponsorship payment and is not included. (correct answer)
  3. The $15,000 sponsorship payment is included in unrelated business taxable income because the law firm's name and logo were displayed, while the $20,000 advertising payment is excluded because the magazine furthers the orchestra's exempt purpose.
  4. Both payments are included in unrelated business taxable income because each business received a promotional benefit from the orchestra's activities.
Explanation: IRC §§ 512(a)(1), 513(c) and 513(i); Treas. Reg. § 1.513-4. Selling advertising in an exempt organization's periodical is an unrelated trade or business even when the periodical itself furthers the exempt purpose, so the $20,000 paid for the half-page advertisement is included in unrelated business taxable income. A qualified sponsorship payment, one for which the payor receives no substantial return benefit other than a use or acknowledgment of its name or logo, is not income from an unrelated trade or business. The law firm's name and logo appear only on gala banners, with no qualitative or comparative language, price information or call to action, so the $15,000 is a qualified sponsorship payment and is excluded. Choice B is correct. Choice A is wrong because the magazine's exempt purpose does not shield advertising income from the tax. Choice C reverses the two: a name-and-logo acknowledgment is not advertising, and periodical advertising is unrelated business income. Choice D is wrong because a mere acknowledgment is not a substantial return benefit.

Question 8

A married couple created a private foundation in 2020 and contributed substantially all of their assets to the foundation. The wife serves as the foundation's president and as a member of its three-person board. In 2025, she sells a commercial building that she owns personally to the foundation for $800,000. An independent appraisal establishes that $800,000 is the building's fair market value, and the foundation's board, including the wife, votes unanimously to approve the purchase.

Which of the following is correct regarding the purchase?

  1. The purchase is not an act of self-dealing because the foundation paid no more than fair market value and the transaction was approved by the entire board.
  2. The purchase is not an act of self-dealing because the wife's position as a board member does not make her a disqualified person with respect to the foundation.
  3. The purchase is an act of self-dealing under IRC § 4941 even though the price equaled fair market value, and the wife is subject to the initial excise tax on the amount involved. (correct answer)
  4. The purchase is an act of self-dealing only if the foundation paid more than fair market value for the building.
Explanation: IRC § 4941(d)(1)(A) and § 4946(a)(1)(B). A sale or exchange of property between a private foundation and a disqualified person is an act of self-dealing, and the statute contains no fair-market-value or board-approval defense. The wife is a disqualified person as a foundation manager because she is the foundation's president and a board member. Under § 4941(a)(1), the initial excise tax is imposed on the self-dealer. Choice C is correct. Choice A asserts an arm's-length defense that § 4941 does not recognize. Choice B is wrong because officers and directors of a private foundation are disqualified persons regardless of whether they contributed to the foundation. Choice D is wrong because the statute does not require that the foundation pay more than fair market value; a sale at fair market value is self-dealing as well.

Question 9

A church that is exempt under IRC § 501(c)(3) hosted a forum during the week before the November 2025 general election. Only the incumbent member of Congress was invited, and he spoke about his record and his re-election platform. The church's pastor introduced him and urged those present to vote for him. No other candidate for the office was invited, and the event was advertised only in the church's newsletter.

Which of the following is correct regarding the church's activities?

  1. The forum is permissible because the church did not use more than an insubstantial part of its resources on the event.
  2. The forum is permissible because the church did not make a contribution to the candidate or to a political committee.
  3. The forum is permissible because the church advertised it only to its members and did not use broadcast media or paid advertising.
  4. The forum is prohibited political campaign intervention, and the church may be subject to excise taxes and may lose its exemption. (correct answer)
Explanation: IRC § 501(c)(3) forbids an exempt organization from participating in, or intervening in, any political campaign for or against a candidate for public office. The prohibition is absolute; unlike the lobbying rules, there is no insubstantial-part or de minimis exception. Hosting a one-candidate forum and urging members to vote for the incumbent is political campaign intervention. Under § 4955, the church may be subject to excise tax on the political expenditures, and the IRS may revoke its exemption. Choice D is correct. Choice A confuses the substantial-part standard that applies to lobbying with the absolute ban on political campaign activity. Choice B is wrong because spending funds to sponsor the event is itself intervention; a contribution to a candidate or committee is not required. Choice C is wrong because the prohibition applies regardless of the audience reached or the medium used to advertise the event.

Question 10

A tax-exempt public charity under IRC § 501(c)(3) operates a community health clinic. Its executive director, who is also a member of the clinic's board of directors, received compensation of $450,000 in 2025. The clinic's board approved the compensation without reviewing any comparable salary data. An independent compensation study later determined that the fair market value of the executive director's services for 2025 was $350,000. The executive director is not a substantial contributor to the clinic.

Which of the following is correct regarding the $100,000 excess compensation?

  1. The excess compensation is subject to an excise tax imposed on the clinic, and the clinic's exempt status is automatically revoked for 2025.
  2. The excess compensation is not subject to excise tax because the executive director is not a substantial contributor and the board approved the payment.
  3. The entire $450,000 of compensation is treated as an excess benefit because the executive director is a disqualified person and the board did not review comparable data.
  4. The excess compensation is subject to an excise tax imposed on the executive director as a disqualified person, and organization managers who knowingly participated may also be subject to an excise tax. (correct answer)
Explanation: IRC § 4958(a) and (f)(1); Treas. Reg. § 53.4958-3. For a public charity, an excess benefit transaction occurs when a disqualified person receives an economic benefit worth more than the consideration provided. A voting board member and the organization's top executive are each disqualified persons because they are in a position to exercise substantial influence. Being a substantial contributor is only one factor that can show such influence, and it is not required. Because the board did not rely on comparability data, the rebuttable presumption of reasonableness is not available. The excess benefit is $450,000 - $350,000 = $100,000. The § 4958 initial tax of 25% of the excess benefit is imposed on the executive director, and organization managers who knowingly participated are subject to a separate 10% tax. Choice D is correct. Choice A is wrong because the § 4958 taxes fall on the disqualified person and the managers, not on the organization, and exemption is not automatically revoked. Choice B is wrong because the executive director is a disqualified person through the executive director's positions, and board approval without comparability data does not avoid the tax. Choice C is wrong because the excess benefit is only the amount by which compensation exceeded fair market value, not the entire compensation.

Question 11

A 501(c)(3) educational organization has elected the expenditure test under IRC § 501(h). For 2025, its exempt purpose expenditures (as defined in IRC § 4911(e)) were $650,000. During the year, the organization incurred $95,000 of direct lobbying expenditures and $30,000 of grassroots lobbying expenditures.

Which of the following is correct regarding the organization's lobbying activities for 2025?

  1. The organization is not subject to any excise tax because its grassroots lobbying expenditures of $30,000 did not exceed the grassroots nontaxable amount.
  2. The organization is subject to the IRC § 4911 excise tax on $2,500, the amount by which its total lobbying expenditures exceed the lobbying nontaxable amount. (correct answer)
  3. The organization is subject to the IRC § 4911 excise tax on the full $125,000 of lobbying expenditures because the total exceeded the lobbying nontaxable amount.
  4. The organization's tax exemption is automatically revoked for 2025 because its total lobbying expenditures exceeded the $122,500 lobbying nontaxable amount.
Explanation: IRC § 4911(a), (b) and (c); IRC § 501(h). For an organization that has elected the § 501(h) expenditure test, the lobbying nontaxable amount is 20% of the first $500,000 of exempt purpose expenditures plus 15% of the next $500,000: $100,000 + (15% x $150,000) = $122,500. The grassroots nontaxable amount is 25% of that, or $30,625. Total lobbying expenditures (direct plus grassroots) are $95,000 + $30,000 = $125,000, which exceeds the lobbying nontaxable amount by $2,500; the $30,000 of grassroots expenditures does not exceed the grassroots nontaxable amount. The § 4911 tax is 25% of the greater of the two excesses, so the tax is 25% x $2,500 = $625. Choice B is correct. Choice A looks only at the grassroots limit and ignores total lobbying. Choice C is wrong because the tax applies to the excess, not to all lobbying expenditures. Choice D is wrong because loss of exemption under § 501(h) requires lobbying expenditures that normally exceed 150% of the nontaxable amount (the lobbying ceiling amount, $183,750 here), measured over a four-year averaging period; a single-year excess of $2,500 triggers only the excise tax.

Question 12

A museum that is exempt under IRC § 501(c)(3) owns a warehouse that it leases to a commercial art storage company. The museum actively manages the warehouse: it negotiated the lease, handles maintenance, and collects the rent. In 2025 the lease produced gross rental income of $120,000, and the museum paid $70,000 of allocable expenses for the warehouse (maintenance, property taxes, insurance, and straight-line depreciation). The warehouse was purchased with a mortgage; the average acquisition indebtedness for 2025 was $400,000, and the warehouse property's average adjusted basis for 2025 was $1,000,000. The museum has no other unrelated business activity in 2025.

What amount of unrelated business taxable income (before the $1,000 specific deduction) must the museum report on Form 990-T for 2025?

  1. $20,000 (correct answer)
  2. $50,000
  3. $30,000
  4. $0
Explanation: IRC § 512(b)(4) and § 514(a). Rents from real property are generally excluded from unrelated business taxable income under § 512(b)(3), but the exclusion is overridden for debt-financed property: the property's net income is included in the ratio that the average acquisition indebtedness bears to the average adjusted basis. Here, the net rental income is $120,000 - $70,000 = $50,000, and the debt/basis fraction is $400,000 / $1,000,000 = 40%, so the pre-deduction unrelated business taxable income is $50,000 × 40% = $20,000. Choice A is correct. Choice B ignores the debt/basis fraction and treats all net rental income as taxable. Choice C uses the equity percentage (60%) instead of the debt percentage, reversing the statutory fraction. Choice D reflects the general exclusion for real property rents but ignores the debt-financed property rules, which override that exclusion.

Question 13

A private foundation has a distributable amount (as defined in IRC § 4942) of $100,000 for 2025 and no excess distribution carryovers from earlier years. During 2025 it made $85,000 of grants to public charities and paid $10,000 of reasonable administrative expenses of its grant-making program. It also granted $20,000 to an unrelated private non-operating foundation, exercising expenditure responsibility over the grant. The donee foundation added the grant to its endowment and will make no distribution out of corpus with respect to it by the end of its 2026 tax year.

Which of the following is correct regarding the foundation's minimum distribution requirement for 2025?

  1. Its 2025 qualifying distributions are $95,000, so $5,000 of the 2025 distributable amount must still be distributed by December 31, 2026, because the grant to the other foundation does not count as a qualifying distribution. (correct answer)
  2. It has met its 2025 distribution requirement because its total disbursements of $115,000 exceeded the $100,000 distributable amount.
  3. It has met its 2025 distribution requirement because the $20,000 grant was made with expenditure responsibility and therefore counts as a qualifying distribution.
  4. Its 2025 qualifying distributions are $85,000, so $15,000 of the 2025 distributable amount must still be distributed by December 31, 2026, because administrative expenses are not qualifying distributions.
Explanation: IRC § 4942(g)(1)(A) and (g)(3). Qualifying distributions include grants to public charities and reasonable administrative expenses paid to accomplish exempt purposes. A grant to a private non-operating foundation counts only if the donee redistributes an equal amount out of corpus by the close of its first tax year after the year of receipt, and this donee will not. The foundation's 2025 qualifying distributions are $85,000 + $10,000 = $95,000, leaving $100,000 - $95,000 = $5,000 of the 2025 distributable amount. That amount must be distributed by December 31, 2026, or it becomes subject to the § 4942(a) tax. Choice A is correct. Choice B counts total cash disbursements rather than qualifying distributions. Choice C is wrong because expenditure responsibility keeps the grant from being a taxable expenditure under § 4945(d)(4) and (h), but it does not satisfy the separate redistribution requirement of § 4942(g)(3). Choice D is wrong because reasonable administrative expenses are qualifying distributions.

Question 14

A charity exempt under IRC § 501(c)(3) operates a thrift store to raise funds for its programs. The store sells donated clothing and household goods, and its sorting, pricing, and sales work is performed entirely by unpaid volunteers. In 2025, the store also began selling new craft items that the charity purchases from a wholesale supplier; those craft sales are handled by two part-time paid employees. During 2025, the store had $90,000 of sales of donated merchandise and $30,000 of sales of purchased craft items.

Which of the following correctly describes the treatment of the store's sales for unrelated business income tax purposes?

  1. None of the sales are subject to unrelated business income tax because all of the store's net proceeds are used for the charity's exempt programs.
  2. All of the store's sales are unrelated business taxable income because the store is regularly carried on throughout the year.
  3. The sales of donated merchandise are not unrelated business taxable income, but the sales of the purchased craft items are unrelated business income. (correct answer)
  4. The sales of donated merchandise are unrelated business taxable income, while the sales of the purchased craft items are not because they are the charity's newer activity.
Explanation: IRC § 513(a)(1) and (a)(3). A trade or business is not unrelated if substantially all of the work is performed without compensation, and a business consisting of selling merchandise that was substantially all received as gifts or contributions is also excluded. The donated-merchandise sales, run entirely by volunteers, satisfy both exceptions. The craft-item sales fail both exceptions: the merchandise was not donated, and paid employees handle those sales, so the craft sales are an unrelated trade or business. Choice C is correct. Choice A is wrong because the use of the proceeds for exempt purposes does not determine whether an activity is an unrelated trade or business. Choice B is wrong because satisfying the regularly-carried-on element does not override the statutory exceptions. Choice D is wrong because it reverses the treatment of the two sales lines.

Question 15

For 2025, which of the following is correct regarding an organization described in IRC § 509(a)(3) as a supporting organization?

  1. A Type III supporting organization must be operated in connection with one or more supported organizations, must satisfy both a responsiveness test and an integral-part test, and may not be controlled by disqualified persons other than foundation managers and its supported organizations. (correct answer)
  2. A Type I supporting organization is operated, supervised, or controlled by a supported organization, while a Type II supporting organization is operated in connection with one or more supported organizations and, like a Type III organization, must satisfy the integral-part test.
  3. A supporting organization may be controlled by disqualified persons if those persons are also substantial contributors to the supported organization and the supported organization has approved the arrangement in writing as consistent with its exempt purposes.
  4. A supporting organization is not a private foundation only if it is organized and operated exclusively for the benefit of a single supported organization that is a church or a school described in § 170(b)(1)(A)(i) or (ii).
Explanation: Under IRC § 509(a)(3) and Treas. Reg. § 1.509(a)-4, Choice A is correct. A Type III supporting organization is not a private foundation; it must be operated in connection with one or more supported organizations, satisfy both the responsiveness and integral-part tests, and satisfy the control test of § 509(a)(3)(C). Choice B misstates the categories: a Type II supporting organization is supervised or controlled in connection with one or more supported organizations (common supervision or control), not 'operated in connection with' them, and only Type III organizations must satisfy the integral-part test. Choice C is wrong because control by disqualified persons other than foundation managers and supported organizations disqualifies an organization under § 509(a)(3)(C), and approval by the supported organization does not cure that defect. Choice D is wrong because § 509(a)(3) is not limited to supporting a single church or school; it permits support of one or more organizations described in § 509(a)(1) or (2).