SEE - Special Enrollment Exam Quiz: Return Accuracy And Record Retention
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Return Accuracy And Record RetentionQuestion 1 of 15

A client sold a rental duplex on July 15, 2025, and asks the enrolled agent how long to keep the 2010 purchase settlement statement and the receipts for a 2015 roof replacement that increased the property's basis. The client's 2025 Form 1040, reporting the sale, was filed on the October 15, 2026 extended due date.

What advice should the EA give about these records?

They should be kept at least until October 15, 2029, because they support the gain reported on the 2025 return and the assessment period does not expire before then.
They are no longer needed, because the purchase and the roof replacement both occurred more than three years before the return was filed.
They should be kept until at least April 15, 2033, because the seven-year record-retention rule for capital assets applies to rental real estate.
They should be kept indefinitely, because the IRS may recompute the basis of property in a closed year whenever that property is later sold by the taxpayer.
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SEE - Special Enrollment Exam Quiz

SEE - Special Enrollment Exam Quiz: Return Accuracy And Record Retention

Practice Return Accuracy And Record Retention in SEE - Special Enrollment Exam with focused quiz questions that help you check what you know, review explanations, and build confidence with test-style prompts.

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This quiz focuses on Return Accuracy And Record Retention, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for SEE - Special Enrollment Exam.

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Question 1

A client sold a rental duplex on July 15, 2025, and asks the enrolled agent how long to keep the 2010 purchase settlement statement and the receipts for a 2015 roof replacement that increased the property's basis. The client's 2025 Form 1040, reporting the sale, was filed on the October 15, 2026 extended due date.

What advice should the EA give about these records?

  1. They should be kept at least until October 15, 2029, because they support the gain reported on the 2025 return and the assessment period does not expire before then. (correct answer)
  2. They are no longer needed, because the purchase and the roof replacement both occurred more than three years before the return was filed.
  3. They should be kept until at least April 15, 2033, because the seven-year record-retention rule for capital assets applies to rental real estate.
  4. They should be kept indefinitely, because the IRS may recompute the basis of property in a closed year whenever that property is later sold by the taxpayer.
Explanation: IRC § 6001 and Treas. Reg. § 1.6001-1(e) require taxpayers to keep records as long as their contents may be material in the administration of any internal revenue law. Basis records for a sold asset remain material until the period of limitations for the year of sale expires. Because the 2025 return was filed on October 15, 2026, the assessment period under IRC § 6501(a) runs through October 15, 2029, and the client should keep the basis records at least that long. Choice B is wrong because the materiality of basis records is measured by the year of disposition, not the year the records were created. Choice C misapplies the seven-year rule of IRC § 6511(d)(1), which is limited to bad debts and worthless securities. Choice D is wrong because the IRS generally cannot recompute a year after its assessment period has closed; the records remain material only through the open year.

Question 2

An enrolled agent is preparing a 2025 individual income tax return for a client. The client wants to deduct an expense that the enrolled agent concludes has a reasonable basis but is not supported by substantial authority. The enrolled agent documents the research and advises the client that disclosure on Form 8275 would reduce penalty risk. The client refuses to allow any disclosure, saying, "The position is not frivolous, so you can sign it."

Under Circular 230 and IRC § 6694, which action is correct for the enrolled agent?

  1. Sign the return because, after the enrolled agent has documented the research and told the client of the issue, the reasonable-basis standard is satisfied and the client has assumed responsibility for the position.
  2. Sign the return if the client signs a written acknowledgment accepting responsibility for any penalty, because client consent is an adequate substitute for a disclosure statement.
  3. Do not sign the return, but tell the client that the return can still be filed without a paid preparer signature because the position is nonfrivolous.
  4. Do not sign the return unless the position is disclosed on Form 8275 or the position is removed, because an undisclosed position that has only a reasonable basis is an unreasonable position for a return preparer. (correct answer)
Explanation: Circular 230 § 10.34(a); IRC § 6694(a). A preparer may not sign a return containing an unreasonable position, and an undisclosed position supported only by reasonable basis—rather than substantial authority—is unreasonable for this purpose. If the client refuses disclosure, the enrolled agent may not sign the return as prepared and should advise the client of the penalty consequences; if the client insists, the enrolled agent should consider withdrawing. Choice A misstates the rule because reasonable basis is sufficient only when the position is adequately disclosed. Choice B is wrong because client consent or a waiver cannot substitute for statutory disclosure. Choice C is wrong because a nonfrivolous position is not enough, and a compensated preparer may not avoid the standard by omitting the required preparer signature.

Question 3

While preparing a client's 2025 Form 1040 in March 2026, an enrolled agent discovers that the client's 2023 return, prepared by another firm, omitted a $30,000 distribution from an inherited IRA. The client says she gave the prior preparer the Form 1099-R and did not know the distribution was omitted. The assessment period for 2023 has not yet expired.

Which action must the EA take?

  1. Report the omission to the IRS, because Circular 230 requires a practitioner to disclose a client's known noncompliance to the Service in writing.
  2. Promptly advise the client of the error and its consequences, including the potential for additional tax, interest, and penalties and the option to file an amended return. (correct answer)
  3. Withdraw from the engagement without discussing the prior year, and return the client's records, to avoid becoming involved in the earlier return.
  4. Prepare the 2025 return without reference to the prior-year omission, because a practitioner is responsible only for the return currently being prepared.
Explanation: Cir. 230 § 10.21 requires a practitioner who knows that a client has made an error in or omission from a return to promptly advise the client of the noncompliance, error, or omission and its consequences. The EA must therefore tell the client about the omitted IRA distribution, the resulting additional tax, interest, and penalties, and the option to file an amended return; the decision to amend belongs to the client. Choice A is wrong because § 10.21 imposes no duty to report the client's error to the IRS. Choice C is wrong because withdrawing without advising does not satisfy the duty. Choice D is wrong because the practitioner's duty is triggered by knowledge of the earlier error and is not limited to the return being prepared.

Question 4

A client filed her 2025 Form 1040 on the October 15, 2026 extended due date. The return reported $80,000 of gross income from wages and bank interest. In December 2026, she received a 2025 Schedule K-1 from a partnership interest she had forgotten, showing $25,000 of ordinary income that was not included on the return. She asks the enrolled agent how long she must keep the records supporting the 2025 return.

What is the correct advice?

  1. The records may be discarded after October 15, 2029, because the general three-year assessment period ends three years after the return was filed.
  2. The records should be kept until at least October 15, 2032, because omitting more than 25 percent of stated gross income extends the assessment period to six years. (correct answer)
  3. The records should be kept until at least October 15, 2033, because the seven-year refund-claim period applies to omitted partnership income.
  4. The records must be kept indefinitely, because a taxpayer who fails to report income from a pass-through entity is treated as having filed a fraudulent return.
Explanation: IRC § 6501(e)(1)(A) extends the assessment period to six years after the return is filed when the taxpayer omits from gross income an amount greater than 25 percent of the gross income stated in the return. The client's return stated gross income of $80,000 and omitted $25,000 of partnership income, more than 25 percent, so the assessment period and the supporting record-keeping obligation run to October 15, 2032, six years after the extended due date on which the return was filed. Choice A applies the general three-year rule of IRC § 6501(a) but ignores the 25-percent omission exception. Choice C borrows the seven-year period of IRC § 6511(d)(1), which applies only to bad-debt and worthless-security claims, not to omitted partnership income. Choice D misstates the fraud rule; the indefinite retention rule applies to fraudulent returns or a failure to file, and the facts show an inadvertent omission, not fraud.

Question 5

In an examination of a client's 2024 Form 1040, the IRS agent proposes to disallow the entire $6,800 of Schedule C business-meal deductions. The client has credit-card receipts for each meal showing the date, restaurant, and amount, but has no diary, calendar, or other record of the business purpose or the person entertained. The client asks the enrolled agent whether she can now prepare a signed statement identifying the business purpose of each meal.

Which statement is correct?

  1. The signed statement will satisfy the substantiation requirement, because IRC § 274(d) permits a taxpayer's own prepared statement when receipts prove the amount, date, and place.
  2. The credit-card receipts are sufficient, because IRC § 274(d) requires substantiation of the amount, date, and place of the expense, all of which the receipts show.
  3. The deductions may be disallowed in full, because a later statement is not corroboration of business purpose, and the Cohan rule does not apply to IRC § 274 expenses. (correct answer)
  4. The agent must allow a reasonable estimate under the Cohan rule, because the receipts conclusively establish that the expenses were paid and the client's statement fills the remaining gap.
Explanation: IRC § 274(d) and Treas. Reg. § 1.274-5T require the taxpayer to substantiate the amount, time, place, business purpose, and business relationship for each business meal by adequate records or by sufficient corroborating evidence. The receipts prove only amount, date, and place; nothing corroborates business purpose or business relationship, so the agent may disallow the meals, and the Cohan rule does not permit estimated deductions for § 274 expenses. Choice A is wrong because a self-serving statement prepared after the examination began is not sufficient corroboration for the missing elements. Choice B is wrong because it ignores the business-purpose and relationship elements. Choice D is wrong because Cohan estimates are unavailable for expenses subject to § 274(d).

Question 6

A client asks an enrolled agent to prepare her 2025 Form 1040. The client operates an online resale activity that has produced losses in each of the past four years. The EA concludes the activity is not carried on for profit and that the client's desired Schedule C treatment has only a reasonable basis, not substantial authority. The client refuses to allow any disclosure on the return.

What should the EA do?

  1. Sign the return, because a position supported by a reasonable basis is permitted on a signed return whenever the taxpayer instructs the preparer to take the position.
  2. Sign the return and attach Form 8275 without the client's consent, because adequate disclosure of a reasonable-basis position eliminates any risk of a preparer or accuracy penalty.
  3. Refuse to sign the return unless the client agrees to adequate disclosure, and if she still refuses, advise her of the penalty risk and consider withdrawing from the engagement. (correct answer)
  4. Prepare the return as the EA believes it should be filed and omit the Schedule C loss, because the preparer, rather than the taxpayer, has final authority over positions taken on a return.
Explanation: Cir. 230 § 10.34 prohibits a practitioner from preparing or signing a return containing a position the practitioner knows or reasonably should know is unreasonable, and a position supported only by a reasonable basis must be adequately disclosed to avoid being unreasonable; IRC § 6694(a)(2)(B) reflects the same disclosure requirement. Because the client refuses disclosure, the EA may not sign the return with the Schedule C loss, and should advise the client of the penalty risk and consider withdrawal if the client insists. Choice A is wrong because a client's instruction cannot make an undisclosed reasonable-basis position permissible on a return the EA signs. Choice B is wrong because the EA may not attach disclosure the taxpayer rejected, and disclosure does not eliminate every penalty risk. Choice D is wrong because the return belongs to the taxpayer; a preparer who disagrees may decline to sign or withdraw, but may not unilaterally substitute a different position.

Question 7

An enrolled agent's firm prepared a client's 2025 Form 1040 and delivered the completed return to her in March 2026; she paid the preparation fee in full. The firm later did tax planning for her 2026 year, and she has not paid that invoice. The engagement letter for the planning work states that the firm may keep all file documents until the account is paid in full. State law does not give practitioners a right to retain client records in a fee dispute. The client, who is answering an IRS notice about her 2025 return and has lost her copy of it, has requested the entire file. It contains her original receipts and bank statements, a signed copy of the 2025 return, and the firm's internal workpapers, research notes, and time-and-billing records, which were never given to her.

Under Circular 230, which statement is correct about the firm's duty to return records?

  1. The firm must return the client's original receipts and bank statements, as well as a copy of the signed return, but it may keep internal workpapers, research notes, and administrative records. (correct answer)
  2. The firm may withhold the entire file until the bill is paid because the engagement letter gives the firm a contractual retaining lien over all documents in the file.
  3. The firm must return only the client's original receipts, because the signed return is an IRS record and the client can obtain a copy of it from the IRS.
  4. The firm must return the entire file, including internal workpapers and time-and-billing records, because anything relating to the engagement is a client record under Circular 230.
Explanation: Circular 230 § 10.28. A practitioner must promptly return, on request, all records of the client necessary for the client's federal tax compliance, even in a fee dispute, and may keep copies. Records of the client include documents the client supplied (the receipts and bank statements) and a return the practitioner prepared that was presented to the client in a prior representation and is needed for current compliance. A practitioner-prepared document may be withheld only while the fee for that document is unpaid. The 2025 return was delivered and paid for, and the client needs it to answer the notice; the unpaid invoice is for the later planning work. Internal workpapers, research notes and billing records that were never given to the client are not records of the client, so the firm may keep them. Choice A is correct. Choice B is wrong because state law gives no retention right here, and an engagement letter cannot override § 10.28. Choice C is wrong because the copy of the return is a record of the client that the firm must return; the client's ability to get a transcript or copy from the IRS does not remove that duty, and the bank statements must also be returned. Choice D is wrong because internal workpapers and administrative records never given to the client are not records of the client.

Question 8

A preparer completes a taxpayer's 2025 Form 1040 and presents it to the taxpayer for signature on September 20, 2026, after the taxpayer obtained an extension of time to file. The taxpayer files the return on October 1, 2026. Under IRC § 6107(b), through what date must the preparer keep the completed copy of the return or the required list?

  1. September 20, 2029, because the period is three years from the date the return was presented to the taxpayer for signature.
  2. October 1, 2029, because the period is three years from the later of the original due date, without regard to extensions, or the date the return was filed.
  3. June 30, 2030, because the period is three years after the close of the July 1 to June 30 return period in which the return was presented for signature. (correct answer)
  4. June 30, 2029, because the period is three years after the close of the July 1 to June 30 return period in which the return's original due date fell.
Explanation: Governing authority: IRC § 6107(b); IRC § 6060(c); Treas. Reg. § 1.6107-1(b). A signing preparer must keep a completed copy of the return, or a list of taxpayers and returns, for the 3-year period following the close of the return period in which the return was presented to the taxpayer for signature. The return period is the 12-month period beginning July 1. The return was presented on September 20, 2026, which falls in the return period ending June 30, 2027, so the copy or list must be kept through June 30, 2030. Failure is penalized under § 6695(d). Choice C is correct. Choice A runs three years from the presentation date itself and ignores the return-period rule. Choice B applies a later-of-due-date-or-filing-date rule that § 6107(b) does not use. Choice D uses the return period in which the original due date fell; the later return period, the one in which the return was presented, controls here.

Question 9

An enrolled agent is preparing a taxpayer's 2025 Form 1040. The taxpayer states that she received only wages and provides a Form W-2. The enrolled agent, however, knows from representing the taxpayer earlier in the year that she sold a rental property and should have received a Form 1099-S for the sale. Under Circular 230, which statement best describes the enrolled agent's duty?

  1. The enrolled agent may rely on the taxpayer's statement in good faith and omit the sale because a practitioner is not required to audit the client's books and records.
  2. The enrolled agent may sign the return with a Form 8275 disclosure instead of reporting the sale because adequate disclosure cures a known omission.
  3. The enrolled agent must make reasonable inquiries about the sale and may not prepare or sign the return if it would omit income the practitioner knows or has reason to believe is taxable. (correct answer)
  4. The enrolled agent must obtain the Form 1099-S from the closing agent before doing any further work because Circular 230 requires third-party verification of every real estate sale.
Explanation: Circular 230 § 10.34 permits a practitioner to rely in good faith on client-supplied information without verification, but the practitioner may not ignore known facts or implications of information and must make reasonable inquiries when the information appears incorrect, incomplete, or inconsistent. The enrolled agent's actual knowledge of the sale makes the taxpayer's statement incomplete. Choice A overstates the reliance privilege because the agent has actual knowledge of the omitted sale. Choice B is wrong because disclosure on Form 8275 cannot cure a known omission of income. Choice D is wrong because Circular 230 does not require third-party verification of every real estate sale; it requires reasonable inquiry and accuracy.

Question 10

A paid preparer is advising a taxpayer about a position on a 2025 return that is contrary to a Treasury regulation but has a reasonable basis. The position is not with respect to a tax shelter and is not with respect to a reportable transaction to which § 6662A applies. Which combination of action and standard is correct under IRC §§ 6662 and 6694?

  1. Attach no disclosure form; a reasonable basis is sufficient to avoid both penalties because the position is not frivolous.
  2. Attach Form 8275 to the return; a reasonable basis and disclosure protect the taxpayer, but the preparer must reasonably believe the position is more likely than not correct.
  3. Attach Form 8275-R to the return; adequate disclosure plus a reasonable basis protects against both the § 6662 and § 6694 penalties for this position. (correct answer)
  4. Attach Form 8275-R to the return; the position must also satisfy the substantial-authority standard for § 6694, and a reasonable basis is not enough for the preparer.
Explanation: Treas. Reg. §§ 1.6662-3(c), 1.6662-4(f) and 1.6694-2(d); IRC §§ 6662(d)(2)(B) and 6694(a)(2); Instructions for Form 8275-R. A position contrary to a Treasury regulation is disclosed on Form 8275-R, not Form 8275. For a position that is not a tax shelter and not a reportable transaction to which § 6662A applies, adequate disclosure plus a reasonable basis avoids the substantial-understatement penalty under § 6662(d)(2)(B) and the preparer penalty under § 6694(a)(2). For the disregard-of-regulations penalty, Treas. Reg. § 1.6662-3(c)(1) adds one more condition: the disclosed position must represent a good-faith challenge to the regulation's validity. Choice C is correct. Choice A is wrong because a reasonable basis alone, without disclosure, does not meet either exception; disclosure is required. Choice B is wrong on the form and the standard: Form 8275 is for positions not contrary to a regulation, and the more-likely-than-not standard applies to tax shelters and § 6662A reportable transactions, not to a disclosed reasonable-basis position. Choice D is wrong because § 6694(a)(2)(B) accepts a reasonable basis for a properly disclosed position; there is no requirement of substantial authority in that case.

Question 11

Under IRC § 6694, which of the following is correct regarding a paid preparer's liability for an understatement caused by a tax-shelter position taken on a 2025 return?

  1. The preparer must reasonably believe the tax-shelter position is more likely than not to be sustained; disclosure does not avoid the § 6694 penalty. (correct answer)
  2. The preparer may avoid the § 6694 penalty by adequately disclosing the tax-shelter position on Form 8275 or Form 8275-R if the position has a reasonable basis.
  3. The preparer may avoid the § 6694 penalty if the taxpayer has substantial authority for the tax-shelter position and the position is disclosed on the return.
  4. The preparer is not subject to § 6694 for tax-shelter positions because the taxpayer is the party responsible for evaluating the tax shelter.
Explanation: IRC § 6694(a)(2)(C). For a position with respect to a tax shelter, or a reportable transaction to which § 6662A applies, the § 6694(a)(2)(C) standard is met only if it is reasonable to believe that the position would more likely than not be sustained on its merits (apart from the reasonable-cause and good-faith exception in § 6694(a)(3)). The disclosure-plus-reasonable-basis exception of § 6694(a)(2)(B) is not available for those positions. Choice A is correct. Choice B is wrong because it applies the disclosure-plus-reasonable-basis exception, which § 6694(a)(2)(C) makes unavailable for a tax-shelter position. Choice C is wrong because substantial authority plus disclosure is not the § 6694 standard for a tax-shelter position; the preparer must reasonably believe the position is more likely than not to be sustained. Choice D is wrong because § 6694(a)(2)(C) expressly applies a stricter standard to preparers for tax-shelter and § 6662A reportable-transaction positions, so a preparer remains subject to the penalty; no rule shifts that responsibility to the taxpayer.

Question 12

An enrolled agent completes representation of a client in an IRS examination, and the client requests return of all records. The client has paid for every return and schedule the agent prepared and gave the client in earlier engagements, but has not yet paid the agent's final invoice for the examination. Under Circular 230 § 10.28, which of the following must the enrolled agent return?

  1. The enrolled agent must return the original documents the client supplied, but the returns and schedules the enrolled agent prepared are the agent's work product and do not need to be returned.
  2. The enrolled agent must return the client-provided documents and any return or schedule the agent prepared and gave the client earlier that the client needs for current federal tax compliance, and may keep copies. (correct answer)
  3. The enrolled agent must return the engagement file, including internal memoranda and drafts, because those materials are part of the client's records once representation ends.
  4. The enrolled agent must give the client the previously prepared returns and schedules only after the client has paid the final invoice for the examination and signed a receipt for the documents.
Explanation: Governing authority: Cir. 230 § 10.28. On request, a practitioner must promptly return all records of the client necessary for the client to comply with federal tax obligations, may keep copies, and generally may not withhold them because of a fee dispute. Records of the client include documents the client supplied and any return, schedule, or other document the practitioner prepared and presented to the client in a prior representation that the client needs for current compliance. A practitioner-prepared document may be withheld only while the fee for that document is unpaid, and these documents are paid for. Choice B is correct. Choice A understates the category because returns and schedules already given to the client are client records. Choice C overstates it: internal memoranda and drafts never given to the client are not client records. Choice D conditions return on payment of an unrelated examination fee and on a receipt, which § 10.28 does not allow.

Question 13

A taxpayer files a 2025 Form 1040 on February 10, 2026. The return reports gross income of $80,000, but it omits a $30,000 payment the taxpayer received for consulting services; no Form 1099 was issued for the payment, and no fraud is involved. For how long should the taxpayer retain the records supporting the items on the return?

  1. At least 3 years after the actual filing date, because a return filed before the due date is treated as filed on the date it was actually filed.
  2. At least 3 years after the return is deemed filed, because the omission was unintentional and the taxpayer reasonably relied on the absence of a Form 1099.
  3. At least 10 years after the return is deemed filed, because any omission of gross income makes the return false or fraudulent.
  4. At least 6 years after the return is deemed filed, because the omitted consulting income exceeded 25 percent of the gross income stated in the return. (correct answer)
Explanation: IRC § 6501(e)(1) extends the assessment period to 6 years when the return omits gross income in excess of 25 percent of the gross income stated in the return. Here, $30,000 exceeds 25 percent of $80,000. Because the return was filed before the due date, it is deemed filed on the due date under § 6501(b)(1), so the records should be kept at least through the 6-year period. Choice A misstates the deemed-filing rule. Choice B ignores the 25 percent omission exception; good faith and absence of a Form 1099 do not shorten the period. Choice C treats every omission as fraudulent; the unlimited fraud period does not apply without fraud or a false or fraudulent return.

Question 14

A paid preparer completes Form 8867 and claims both the earned income tax credit and the child tax credit on a taxpayer's 2025 Form 1040. Which statement is correct regarding the preparer's due-diligence record-retention obligation?

  1. The preparer must submit Form 8867 and all supporting worksheets to the IRS with the return; no retention is required after the IRS accepts the return.
  2. The preparer must retain Form 8867 for 6 years in electronic form, but only for returns claiming the EITC; child tax credit claims do not require retention.
  3. The preparer must retain the taxpayer's prior-year returns and bank statements for 3 years after the preparer signs the return, but need not keep Form 8867.
  4. The preparer must retain Form 8867 and the records relied on for 3 years from the latest of the unextended due date, the e-file date, or the presentation date. (correct answer)
Explanation: Governing authority: Treas. Reg. § 1.6695-2(b)(4); Instructions for Form 8867. The preparer must keep a copy of Form 8867, the credit computation worksheets, and a record of the documents relied on and the inquiries made, for three years from the latest of the due date of the return (not including extensions), the date a signing preparer e-filed it, or the date a paper return was presented to the taxpayer for signature. Form 8867 itself is filed with the return; the worksheets and other records are kept, not submitted. Choice D is correct. Choice A misstates both duties: the worksheets are not submitted, and retention is required even after the IRS accepts the return. Choice B uses the wrong period and wrongly limits the requirement to EITC claims. Choice C keeps the wrong records, drops Form 8867, and measures from the signing date alone.

Question 15

An enrolled agent prepared a client's 2025 Form 1040 and e-filed it on March 18, 2026. To reduce storage costs, the EA retained only a spreadsheet listing each client's name, Social Security number, tax year, and type of return, and permanently deleted the return files. In June 2027, the client asks for a copy of the return, and the IRS separately asks the EA why the return files are not among her records.

Which statement is correct regarding the EA's retention practice?

  1. The EA violated IRC § 6107(b) because a completed copy of each return, not a list, must be retained for three years after the close of the return period.
  2. The EA violated IRC § 6695(d) because electronically filed returns must be retained in the format in which they were transmitted for seven years.
  3. The EA complied with IRC § 6107(b), which permits retaining a list of each taxpayer's name, identification number, and taxable year instead of a completed copy of each return. (correct answer)
  4. The EA complied with IRC § 6107(b), but only because the three-year retention period had already expired by June 2027, so no retention duty remained.
Explanation: IRC §§ 6107(b) and 6060(c); Treas. Reg. § 1.6107-1(b); IRC § 6695(d). A return preparer must keep, for 3 years after the close of the return period, either a completed copy of each return or claim for refund prepared, or a list showing each taxpayer's name, taxpayer identification number, taxable year and the type of return or claim prepared. The EA's spreadsheet shows all four required elements: name, Social Security number, tax year and type of return. Her practice therefore complies. Choice C is correct. Choice A is wrong because § 6107(b) expressly permits the list as an alternative to a completed copy of each return. Choice B is wrong because § 6695(d) penalizes a failure to keep the required copy or list; no seven-year rule or transmission-format rule exists for preparers. Choice D is wrong because the retention period had not expired: the return period is the 12-month period beginning July 1, so a return presented on March 18, 2026, falls in the period from July 1, 2025, to June 30, 2026, and the list must be kept through June 30, 2029.