All questions
Question 1
A 45-year-old patient with ARDS has been sedated with a propofol infusion at a high dose (65 mcg/kg/min) for over 48 hours. The nurse observes new-onset bradycardia, severe metabolic acidosis on the ABG, and the patient's serum is noted to be lipemic. The patient's creatine kinase (CK) level is markedly elevated.
This constellation of findings is most characteristic of which high-alert medication complication?
- Malignant hyperthermia
- Propofol-related infusion syndrome (PRIS) (correct answer)
- Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
- Serotonin syndrome
Explanation: Propofol-related infusion syndrome (PRIS) is a rare but fatal complication of prolonged, high-dose propofol infusion. It is characterized by acute refractory bradycardia leading to asystole, severe metabolic acidosis, rhabdomyolysis (elevated CK), hyperlipidemia, and renal failure.
Question 2
A patient is receiving a titrated infusion of sodium nitroprusside for a hypertensive emergency. After 48 hours of infusion, the patient becomes confused, tachycardic, and develops a metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap. The patient has known chronic kidney disease.
The nurse should suspect toxicity from which metabolite of this high-alert medication?
- Nitric oxide
- Cyanide (correct answer)
- Thiocyanate
- Methemoglobin
Explanation: Sodium nitroprusside is metabolized to nitric oxide (the therapeutic molecule) and five cyanide ions. Cyanide is then converted in the liver to the less toxic thiocyanate, which is excreted by the kidneys. In cases of prolonged infusion, high doses, or underlying liver/kidney disease, cyanide can accumulate, leading to toxicity by inhibiting aerobic metabolism. This results in lactic acidosis, CNS changes, and cardiovascular collapse.
Question 3
A patient is being treated for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) with a continuous IV infusion of regular insulin. Initial labs showed a glucose of 650 mg/dL and a serum potassium of 5.8 mEq/L. After four hours of treatment with insulin and IV fluids, the glucose is now 280 mg/dL, and the anion gap is improving.
At this stage of treatment, the nurse should prioritize monitoring for which electrolyte imbalance?
- Hypernatremia due to dehydration.
- Hypokalemia due to intracellular shifts. (correct answer)
- Hypercalcemia due to acidosis correction.
- Hypomagnesemia due to osmotic diuresis.
Explanation: During DKA treatment, insulin therapy drives potassium from the extracellular fluid back into the cells, along with glucose. Patients with DKA often have a total body potassium deficit despite having normal or high serum levels initially due to acidosis. As treatment corrects the acidosis and hyperglycemia, serum potassium can drop precipitously, leading to potentially fatal cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, frequent monitoring and replacement of potassium is a critical priority.
Question 4
A patient is being transitioned from a therapeutic heparin infusion to oral warfarin. Today's lab results are: aPTT 75 seconds (therapeutic) and INR 1.6 (goal 2.0-3.0). The provider's orders are to continue both medications at their current doses.
What is the primary pharmacodynamic rationale for overlapping heparin and warfarin therapy for at least five days?
- Warfarin's long half-life requires time to reach a therapeutic blood concentration.
- Warfarin initially decreases Protein C and S, causing a transient hypercoagulable state. (correct answer)
- Heparin potentiates the action of warfarin on the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors.
- Concurrent use reduces the overall risk of developing bleeding complications.
Explanation: Warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, but it also inhibits the natural anticoagulants Protein C and S. Because Protein C has a very short half-life, its levels drop quickly, leading to a temporary prothrombotic state before the anticoagulant effect on the clotting factors is fully established. The heparin infusion provides immediate anticoagulation that 'bridges' this period until the INR is therapeutic.
Question 5
An 80-year-old patient with atrial fibrillation has been on stable warfarin therapy for two years, with a target INR of 2.0-3.0. The patient is admitted for pneumonia and started on sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim. On admission, the INR was 2.5. Four days later, the INR is 7.8, and the nurse notes new ecchymosis on the patient's arms.
What is the most likely cause of the patient's supratherapeutic INR?
- A drug-drug interaction between warfarin and the antibiotic. (correct answer)
- Decreased warfarin clearance due to age-related renal decline.
- A sudden increase in dietary intake of vitamin K-rich foods.
- An inadvertent administration of a warfarin loading dose.
Explanation: Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim is a potent inhibitor of the CYP2C9 enzyme, which is responsible for metabolizing the more active S-isomer of warfarin. This interaction decreases warfarin clearance, leading to a significant increase in INR and bleeding risk. The timing of the INR rise corresponds directly with the initiation of the antibiotic.
Question 6
A patient in the intensive care unit weighs 80 kg and is hypotensive despite fluid resuscitation. The physician orders a norepinephrine infusion to begin at 0.05 mcg/kg/min. The standard pharmacy concentration is norepinephrine 4 mg in 250 mL of D5W.
At what rate in mL/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump?
- 15.0 mL/hr (correct answer)
- 4.0 mL/hr
- 24.0 mL/hr
- 7.5 mL/hr
Explanation: Multi-step calculation is required:
-
Calculate the required dose in mcg/min: 0.05 mcg/kg/min * 80 kg = 4 mcg/min.
-
Calculate the required dose in mcg/hr: 4 mcg/min * 60 min/hr = 240 mcg/hr.
-
Calculate the concentration of the solution: 4 mg = 4000 mcg. So, 4000 mcg / 250 mL = 16 mcg/mL.
-
Calculate the infusion rate in mL/hr: (240 mcg/hr) / (16 mcg/mL) = 15 mL/hr.
Question 7
A 90-kg patient is diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism. The treatment protocol includes an IV heparin bolus of 80 units/kg followed by a continuous infusion started at 18 units/kg/hr. The pharmacy supplies a standard heparin solution of 25,000 units in 250 mL of 0.9% NaCl.
To start the continuous infusion as ordered, the nurse should set the infusion pump to what rate in mL/hr?
- 7.2 mL/hr
- 16.2 mL/hr (correct answer)
- 18.0 mL/hr
- 32.4 mL/hr
Explanation: This is a multi-step calculation:
-
Calculate the total units per hour: 18 units/kg/hr * 90 kg = 1620 units/hr.
-
Determine the concentration of the heparin solution: 25,000 units / 250 mL = 100 units/mL.
-
Calculate the infusion rate in mL/hr: (Total units/hr) / (Concentration in units/mL) = 1620 units/hr / 100 units/mL = 16.2 mL/hr.
Question 8
An 82-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes and an estimated creatinine clearance of 35 mL/min is admitted with profound hypoglycemia (blood glucose 42 mg/dL) after taking their prescribed glyburide. The patient is treated with IV dextrose and the hypoglycemia resolves, but it recurs 6 hours later.
What is the most likely reason for the recurrent and prolonged hypoglycemia in this patient?
- An unusually large dose of glyburide was taken by mistake.
- Accumulation of active metabolites due to renal impairment. (correct answer)
- Masking of hypoglycemic symptoms by a beta-blocker.
- The patient engaged in unaccustomed strenuous exercise.
Explanation: Glyburide is a long-acting sulfonylurea with active metabolites that are cleared by the kidneys. In patients with renal impairment, these metabolites can accumulate, leading to severe, prolonged, and recurrent hypoglycemia that can persist for more than 24 hours. This makes it a high-risk medication in the elderly and those with kidney disease.
Question 9
A 55-year-old patient has been receiving a continuous intravenous heparin infusion for a deep vein thrombosis for five days. The patient's baseline platelet count was 250,000/mm³. The nurse reviews the morning labs and notes the platelet count is now 90,000/mm³. The patient has no signs of active bleeding.
Which action is the highest priority for the nurse to take?
- Request an order for a STAT activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
- Prepare for a platelet transfusion to correct the thrombocytopenia.
- Administer the ordered dose of protamine sulfate immediately.
- Stop the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider. (correct answer)
Explanation: A platelet count drop of over 50% from baseline after 5-14 days of heparin therapy is highly suspicious for Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT), a life-threatening, prothrombotic condition. The immediate priority is to stop the offending agent (heparin) and notify the provider to switch to an alternative anticoagulant.
Question 10
A patient with a serum potassium of 2.6 mEq/L is receiving potassium chloride 20 mEq in 100 mL 0.9% NaCl via a peripheral IV in the forearm, prescribed to infuse over 2 hours. Thirty minutes into the infusion, the patient reports severe burning pain at the IV site, which appears erythematous and swollen proximal to the catheter.
What is the nurse's most appropriate initial action?
- Slow the infusion rate and apply a warm compress to the site.
- Stop the infusion and assess the IV site for infiltration. (correct answer)
- Continue the infusion but request a central line placement for future doses.
- Administer a local anesthetic at the IV site as per institutional protocol.
Explanation: Potassium chloride is a vesicant and can cause severe phlebitis and tissue damage if it infiltrates. The combination of severe pain, redness, and swelling strongly suggests infiltration. The absolute first priority is to stop the infusion to prevent further tissue injury, then assess the site and follow protocols for managing infiltration.
Question 11
A cachectic, opioid-naive 78-year-old patient with cancer pain is prescribed a fentanyl 25 mcg/hr transdermal patch. The patient's spouse calls the clinic 24 hours after applying the first patch, stating the patient is extremely sleepy and difficult to arouse. The spouse also mentions the patient had a fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C) overnight.
Which factor most likely contributed to the patient's acute opioid toxicity?
- Incorrect application of the patch to a skin fold.
- Delayed drug metabolism due to the patient's cachexia.
- Increased drug absorption due to the patient's fever. (correct answer)
- A drug interaction with an over-the-counter sleep aid.
Explanation: The absorption of fentanyl from a transdermal patch is temperature-dependent. Increased body temperature (fever) or the application of an external heat source causes vasodilation of cutaneous blood vessels, which significantly increases the rate and amount of fentanyl absorbed into the systemic circulation. This can lead to a rapid and unpredictable overdose, especially in an opioid-naive, elderly patient.
Question 12
A patient at 32 weeks gestation is receiving an IV infusion of magnesium sulfate for pre-term labor. The nurse's assessment reveals the following: respiratory rate 10 breaths/min, absent patellar reflexes, and a complaint of feeling flushed and hot.
Which finding is the most definitive indicator of magnesium toxicity that requires the nurse to stop the infusion immediately?
- The patient's report of feeling flushed and hot.
- A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute.
- The absence of patellar reflexes. (correct answer)
- A decrease in the frequency of uterine contractions.
Explanation: While respiratory depression is a life-threatening sign of magnesium toxicity, the loss of deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) is an earlier and more reliable clinical sign. The progression of toxicity is typically loss of DTRs, followed by respiratory depression, and then cardiac arrest. Feeling flushed is a common side effect, not a sign of toxicity. Decreased contractions is a therapeutic effect.
Question 13
A patient is undergoing a colonoscopy with moderate sedation using IV midazolam. Ten minutes after the last dose, the nurse observes that the patient's respiratory rate has decreased from 16 to 8 breaths per minute, and the end-tidal CO2 (ETCO2) has risen from 38 mmHg to 55 mmHg. Oxygen saturation remains 93% on supplemental oxygen.
Which parameter provides the earliest and most sensitive indication of midazolam-induced respiratory depression?
- The decrease in oxygen saturation (SpO2).
- The patient's self-reported level of sedation.
- The rise in the end-tidal CO2 level. (correct answer)
- The decrease in the observable respiratory rate.
Explanation: End-tidal CO2 (capnography) is the most sensitive indicator of hypoventilation. A rising ETCO2 indicates that the patient is not effectively eliminating carbon dioxide, which is the direct result of respiratory depression. This change is often detectable before a significant drop in respiratory rate or oxygen saturation occurs, making it the earliest warning sign.
Question 14
A patient with acute decompensated heart failure is receiving a dobutamine infusion at 5 mcg/kg/min. The nurse notes the patient's heart rate has increased from 90 to 130 bpm and the cardiac monitor shows multifocal premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). The patient's blood pressure remains stable.
What is the most appropriate initial nursing action?
- Administer a prescribed PRN dose of IV metoprolol.
- Increase the dobutamine infusion to improve contractility.
- Notify the provider of the tachyarrhythmia. (correct answer)
- Check the patient's serum magnesium and potassium levels.
Explanation: Dobutamine is a positive inotrope and chronotrope that can cause tachyarrhythmias, which is a primary dose-limiting side effect. The development of significant tachycardia and ventricular ectopy indicates the patient may be receiving too much of the drug. The nurse's first action should be to notify the provider, who will likely order a reduction in the infusion rate. Administering another drug or checking labs are secondary actions.
Question 15
A 55-year-old patient has been receiving a continuous intravenous heparin infusion for a deep vein thrombosis for five days. The patient's baseline platelet count was 250,000/mm³. The nurse reviews the morning labs and notes the platelet count is now 90,000/mm³. The patient has no signs of active bleeding.
Which action is the highest priority for the nurse to take?
- Request an order for a STAT activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
- Prepare for a platelet transfusion to correct the thrombocytopenia.
- Administer the ordered dose of protamine sulfate immediately.
- Stop the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider. (correct answer)
Explanation: A platelet count drop of over 50% from baseline after 5-14 days of heparin therapy is highly suspicious for Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT), a life-threatening, prothrombotic condition. The immediate priority is to stop the offending agent (heparin) and notify the provider to switch to an alternative anticoagulant.
Question 16
A 65-year-old patient with end-stage COPD and a history of sleep apnea is receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump following abdominal surgery. The nurse finds the patient difficult to arouse, with a respiratory rate of 7 breaths/minute and an SpO2 of 86% on room air.
After attempting to stimulate the patient, which action should the nurse perform immediately?
- Stop the PCA pump to prevent further opioid delivery.
- Administer a dose of naloxone intravenously as per protocol. (correct answer)
- Apply a non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min of oxygen.
- Activate the rapid response team and prepare for intubation.
Explanation: The patient is exhibiting clear signs of severe opioid-induced respiratory depression. While all options are relevant, the immediate, life-saving intervention is the administration of an opioid antagonist, naloxone, to reverse the effects of the morphine. This action directly addresses the root cause of the hypoventilation and should be performed concurrently with stopping the pump and calling for help.
Question 17
A 45-year-old patient with ARDS has been sedated with a propofol infusion at a high dose (65 mcg/kg/min) for over 48 hours. The nurse observes new-onset bradycardia, severe metabolic acidosis on the ABG, and the patient's serum is noted to be lipemic. The patient's creatine kinase (CK) level is markedly elevated.
This constellation of findings is most characteristic of which high-alert medication complication?
- Malignant hyperthermia
- Propofol-related infusion syndrome (PRIS) (correct answer)
- Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
- Serotonin syndrome
Explanation: Propofol-related infusion syndrome (PRIS) is a rare but fatal complication of prolonged, high-dose propofol infusion. It is characterized by acute refractory bradycardia leading to asystole, severe metabolic acidosis, rhabdomyolysis (elevated CK), hyperlipidemia, and renal failure.
Question 18
A 72-year-old patient has been taking oral amiodarone 200 mg daily for 18 months to manage atrial fibrillation. During a routine follow-up, the nurse notes the patient has developed a new, persistent, non-productive cough and is more short of breath when walking.
These new symptoms should prompt a priority evaluation for which known, serious adverse effect of long-term amiodarone therapy?
- Amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism.
- Optic neuropathy or corneal microdeposits.
- Progressive liver damage or hepatotoxicity.
- Chronic interstitial pneumonitis or pulmonary fibrosis. (correct answer)
Explanation: Pulmonary toxicity is one of the most serious adverse effects of amiodarone. It can be insidious in onset and often presents with a non-productive cough, dyspnea on exertion, and pleuritic chest pain. Given the potential for irreversible lung damage, these symptoms require immediate investigation, typically starting with a chest X-ray and pulmonary function tests.
Question 19
A patient taking dabigatran for non-valvular atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department after a significant head injury. The patient is lethargic. The provider is considering administration of the reversal agent, idarucizumab.
Which piece of information is most critical for the team to obtain to guide the decision-making process for reversal?
- The patient's most recent international normalized ratio (INR).
- The time the last dose of dabigatran was ingested. (correct answer)
- A list of the patient's home cardiac medications.
- The patient's baseline creatinine clearance.
Explanation: Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor with a relatively short half-life. Knowing the time of the last dose is critical to estimate the amount of circulating drug and the level of anticoagulation. This information directly impacts the urgency and necessity of using a specific reversal agent. Baseline renal function is important for dosing but time of last dose is paramount in an acute bleed.
Question 20
A cachectic, opioid-naive 78-year-old patient with cancer pain is prescribed a fentanyl 25 mcg/hr transdermal patch. The patient's spouse calls the clinic 24 hours after applying the first patch, stating the patient is extremely sleepy and difficult to arouse. The spouse also mentions the patient had a fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C) overnight.
Which factor most likely contributed to the patient's acute opioid toxicity?
- Incorrect application of the patch to a skin fold.
- Delayed drug metabolism due to the patient's cachexia.
- Increased drug absorption due to the patient's fever. (correct answer)
- A drug interaction with an over-the-counter sleep aid.
Explanation: The absorption of fentanyl from a transdermal patch is temperature-dependent. Increased body temperature (fever) or the application of an external heat source causes vasodilation of cutaneous blood vessels, which significantly increases the rate and amount of fentanyl absorbed into the systemic circulation. This can lead to a rapid and unpredictable overdose, especially in an opioid-naive, elderly patient.