Pathophysiology Quiz: Addison Vs Cushing Syndrome
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Addison Vs Cushing SyndromeQuestion 1 of 20

A patient with small-cell lung carcinoma develops severe hypertension, hypokalemia, and signs of Cushing syndrome. Lab tests reveal extremely high plasma ACTH and serum cortisol levels that do not suppress with a high-dose dexamethasone test. This pathophysiology is best described as:

Cushing's disease with an unusually aggressive pituitary macroadenoma.
Primary adrenal carcinoma with autonomous co-secretion of cortisol and aldosterone.
Ectopic ACTH syndrome from paraneoplastic hormone production.
Coincidental development of Conn's syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism) with the lung cancer.
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Pathophysiology Quiz

Pathophysiology Quiz: Addison Vs Cushing Syndrome

Practice Addison Vs Cushing Syndrome in Pathophysiology with focused quiz questions that help you check what you know, review explanations, and build confidence with test-style prompts.

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This quiz focuses on Addison Vs Cushing Syndrome, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for Pathophysiology.

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Question 1

A patient with small-cell lung carcinoma develops severe hypertension, hypokalemia, and signs of Cushing syndrome. Lab tests reveal extremely high plasma ACTH and serum cortisol levels that do not suppress with a high-dose dexamethasone test. This pathophysiology is best described as:

  1. Cushing's disease with an unusually aggressive pituitary macroadenoma.
  2. Primary adrenal carcinoma with autonomous co-secretion of cortisol and aldosterone.
  3. Ectopic ACTH syndrome from paraneoplastic hormone production. (correct answer)
  4. Coincidental development of Conn's syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism) with the lung cancer.
Explanation: This is the classic presentation of ectopic ACTH syndrome. Small-cell lung cancer is a neuroendocrine tumor that can synthesize and secrete biologically active ACTH (or its precursor, POMC). This non-pituitary source of ACTH is completely unregulated by the HPA axis feedback loops, hence the lack of suppression with dexamethasone. The extremely high levels of ACTH lead to massive stimulation of the adrenal glands, causing severe hypercortisolism and often prominent mineralocorticoid effects (hypertension, hypokalemia).

Question 2

Which pathophysiological difference best explains why hyperpigmentation is a classic sign of primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease) but is characteristically absent in secondary adrenal insufficiency caused by pituitary failure?

  1. In secondary insufficiency, preserved aldosterone production prevents the electrolyte shifts that indirectly trigger skin changes.
  2. The autoimmune process in Addison disease creates antibodies that cross-react with skin pigments, a mechanism absent in pituitary failure.
  3. In primary insufficiency, loss of cortisol feedback leads to markedly elevated ACTH, which also stimulates melanocytes; in secondary insufficiency, ACTH levels are low. (correct answer)
  4. Patients with pituitary failure have a global deficiency of pituitary hormones, including MSH, which actively prevents any hyperpigmentation.
Explanation: The key distinction lies in the ACTH level. In primary adrenal insufficiency, the adrenal gland fails, leading to low cortisol. This lack of negative feedback causes the pituitary to secrete very high levels of ACTH. ACTH is derived from POMC, which is also a precursor to MSH, and ACTH itself has melanocyte-stimulating activity. In secondary adrenal insufficiency, the pituitary itself fails, so it cannot produce ACTH. Consequently, ACTH levels are low, and there is no stimulus for melanocytes to produce more melanin.

Question 3

A patient with a history of autoimmune thyroiditis and type 1 diabetes mellitus presents with new-onset fatigue, weight loss, and postural dizziness. This presentation is concerning for Autoimmune Polyglandular Syndrome with an adrenal component. The development of Addison disease in this patient would be caused by an autoimmune process resulting in which specific pathological change?

  1. Infiltration of the anterior pituitary by lymphocytes, impairing the secretion of ACTH.
  2. The production of stimulating autoantibodies targeting the ACTH receptor, causing adrenal gland burnout.
  3. Autoimmune destruction limited to the zona glomerulosa, causing isolated hypoaldosteronism.
  4. Destruction of all three layers of the adrenal cortex, causing a combined glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid deficiency. (correct answer)
Explanation: Autoimmune adrenalitis is the most common cause of Addison disease in developed countries and is often associated with other autoimmune conditions (Autoimmune Polyglandular Syndromes). The pathology involves a cell-mediated immune attack (involving lymphocytes) against the adrenal cortex. This destructive process is typically diffuse, affecting all three layers: the zona glomerulosa (producing aldosterone), zona fasciculata (producing cortisol), and zona reticularis (producing adrenal androgens). This leads to a combined deficiency of all adrenal cortical hormones.

Question 4

An ACTH stimulation test is performed by administering cosyntropin (synthetic ACTH) to a patient with suspected adrenal insufficiency. Which response pattern is most characteristic of primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease)?

  1. Low baseline cortisol with a minimal or absent increase post-stimulation. (correct answer)
  2. Low baseline cortisol with an exaggerated and robust increase post-stimulation.
  3. High baseline cortisol that remains unchanged post-stimulation.
  4. Normal baseline cortisol with a blunted or subnormal increase post-stimulation.
Explanation: In primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease), the adrenal cortex is destroyed or nonfunctional. Therefore, it cannot respond to ACTH stimulation. The baseline cortisol is low, and even with the administration of exogenous ACTH (cosyntropin), the adrenal glands are unable to synthesize and secrete cortisol, resulting in a flat or minimally responsive curve. A blunted response (D) is more typical of secondary insufficiency, where the glands are atrophied but retain some function. A high, non-responsive baseline (C) suggests a cortisol-producing adrenal tumor.

Question 5

A 45-year-old presents with new-onset central obesity, facial plethora, and proximal muscle weakness. A 24-hour urinary free cortisol measurement is markedly elevated. A follow-up plasma ACTH level is <5 pg/mL (normally 7-65 pg/mL). What is the most likely underlying pathophysiology?

  1. Chronic ingestion of an exogenous glucocorticoid, leading to suppression of the endogenous HPA axis.
  2. An intermittently secreting pituitary adenoma, with blood drawn during a quiescent phase.
  3. A defect in the cortisol receptor causing glucocorticoid resistance and a compensatory rise in cortisol.
  4. Autonomous cortisol production from an adrenal neoplasm, which suppresses the HPA axis. (correct answer)
Explanation: When you encounter a patient with Cushing's syndrome (excess cortisol causing central obesity, facial plethora, and proximal weakness), you need to determine the source of excess cortisol by analyzing the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis feedback loop. The key insight here is understanding how ACTH levels help localize the problem. This patient has high cortisol (elevated 24-hour urinary free cortisol) but suppressed ACTH (<5 pg/mL). Since ACTH normally stimulates cortisol production, you need to explain why cortisol is high while ACTH is low. Answer D is correct because an autonomous adrenal tumor produces cortisol independently of ACTH stimulation. The high cortisol then suppresses the HPA axis through negative feedback, leading to low ACTH levels. This creates the classic pattern: high cortisol + low ACTH = primary adrenal source. Answer A is wrong because while exogenous glucocorticoids would suppress ACTH, they would also suppress endogenous cortisol production, so urinary free cortisol would be low, not elevated. Answer B is wrong because a pituitary adenoma would cause high ACTH (not low), leading to secondary hypercortisolism. Even if sampled during a "quiescent phase," you wouldn't see this degree of cortisol elevation with suppressed ACTH. Answer C is wrong because glucocorticoid resistance would cause high ACTH as the body attempts to overcome the resistance, not suppressed ACTH. Study tip: Remember the ACTH pattern: High cortisol + Low ACTH = Primary adrenal problem. High cortisol + High ACTH = Pituitary or ectopic ACTH source.

Question 6

A patient is diagnosed with Cushing syndrome secondary to a cortisol-secreting adenoma of the right adrenal gland. What is the most likely pathophysiological consequence for the contralateral (left) adrenal gland?

  1. Compensatory hypertrophy to help metabolize the excessive circulating cortisol.
  2. Atrophy due to chronic suppression of pituitary ACTH secretion by the high cortisol levels. (correct answer)
  3. Development of a similar adenoma due to a systemic tropic factor.
  4. No significant change, as the two adrenal glands are regulated independently.
Explanation: The high level of cortisol produced by the right adrenal adenoma exerts strong negative feedback on the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. This suppresses the release of CRH and ACTH. ACTH is the primary trophic hormone for the adrenal cortex (specifically the zona fasciculata and reticularis). Without ACTH stimulation, the cells of the contralateral (left) adrenal cortex will atrophy over time. This is an important clinical concept, as removing the tumor will lead to a period of adrenal insufficiency until the HPA axis recovers.

Question 7

A patient with small-cell lung carcinoma develops severe hypertension, hypokalemia, and signs of Cushing syndrome. Lab tests reveal extremely high plasma ACTH and serum cortisol levels that do not suppress with a high-dose dexamethasone test. This pathophysiology is best described as:

  1. Cushing's disease with an unusually aggressive pituitary macroadenoma.
  2. Primary adrenal carcinoma with autonomous co-secretion of cortisol and aldosterone.
  3. Ectopic ACTH syndrome from paraneoplastic hormone production. (correct answer)
  4. Coincidental development of Conn's syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism) with the lung cancer.
Explanation: This is the classic presentation of ectopic ACTH syndrome. Small-cell lung cancer is a neuroendocrine tumor that can synthesize and secrete biologically active ACTH (or its precursor, POMC). This non-pituitary source of ACTH is completely unregulated by the HPA axis feedback loops, hence the lack of suppression with dexamethasone. The extremely high levels of ACTH lead to massive stimulation of the adrenal glands, causing severe hypercortisolism and often prominent mineralocorticoid effects (hypertension, hypokalemia).

Question 8

A patient who has taken 40 mg of prednisone daily for several years for an autoimmune condition abruptly stops all medications. Within 48 hours, she presents with nausea, weakness, and severe hypotension. This clinical emergency is pathophysiologically equivalent to which condition?

  1. Iatrogenic Cushing syndrome from the cumulative effects of chronic prednisone.
  2. An Addisonian crisis due to autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands.
  3. Secondary adrenal insufficiency due to prolonged HPA axis suppression and atrophy. (correct answer)
  4. A thyrotoxic crisis precipitated by the sudden withdrawal of immunosuppression.
Explanation: Long-term administration of exogenous glucocorticoids like prednisone suppresses the entire hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. The hypothalamus stops producing CRH, and the pituitary stops producing ACTH. Without ACTH stimulation, the adrenal glands atrophy and lose their ability to produce endogenous cortisol. When the external source of glucocorticoid is suddenly withdrawn, the atrophied HPA axis cannot respond, leading to a state of acute adrenal insufficiency. This is termed secondary (or tertiary) insufficiency because the adrenal gland itself is not diseased, but it is nonfunctional due to lack of stimulation.

Question 9

The bronze hyperpigmentation observed in a patient with Addison disease is a direct consequence of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis dysregulation. What is the precise link between adrenal cortical destruction and the change in skin color?

  1. Loss of negative feedback by cortisol results in pituitary overproduction of pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC), the precursor to both ACTH and melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH). (correct answer)
  2. Autoantibodies that target the adrenal glands cross-react with melanocytes, directly stimulating them to increase melanin synthesis.
  3. Cortisol deficiency itself acts as a direct stimulant for melanocytes, triggering a compensatory increase in melanin production.
  4. The accumulation of metabolic waste products from adrenal failure, such as urochrome, are deposited in the dermal layer of the skin.
Explanation: In primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease), the low level of cortisol from the failing adrenal glands removes the negative feedback on the hypothalamus and pituitary. This leads to increased synthesis and release of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) and subsequently, a large increase in the production of pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC). POMC is cleaved into several peptides, including ACTH and α-MSH. Both ACTH and α-MSH can bind to the melanocortin-1 receptor on melanocytes, stimulating melanin production and causing hyperpigmentation.

Question 10

A patient presents with central obesity, muscle wasting, and hyperglycemia, suggestive of Cushing syndrome. Which of the following laboratory profiles would most specifically point to an ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma (Cushing's disease) as the underlying cause?

  1. High serum cortisol and suppressed plasma ACTH levels.
  2. High serum cortisol and elevated plasma ACTH levels. (correct answer)
  3. Low serum cortisol and elevated plasma ACTH levels.
  4. Low serum cortisol and suppressed plasma ACTH levels.
Explanation: In Cushing's disease, a pituitary adenoma autonomously secretes ACTH. This excess ACTH stimulates the adrenal glands to produce high levels of cortisol. The normal negative feedback loop is broken; despite high cortisol, the pituitary tumor continues to secrete ACTH. Therefore, both cortisol and ACTH will be elevated. A primary adrenal tumor would result in high cortisol but suppressed ACTH (A). Addison disease presents with low cortisol and high ACTH (C). Secondary adrenal insufficiency presents with low cortisol and low ACTH (D).

Question 11

An ACTH stimulation test is performed by administering cosyntropin (synthetic ACTH) to a patient with suspected adrenal insufficiency. Which response pattern is most characteristic of primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease)?

  1. Low baseline cortisol with a minimal or absent increase post-stimulation. (correct answer)
  2. Low baseline cortisol with an exaggerated and robust increase post-stimulation.
  3. High baseline cortisol that remains unchanged post-stimulation.
  4. Normal baseline cortisol with a blunted or subnormal increase post-stimulation.
Explanation: In primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease), the adrenal cortex is destroyed or nonfunctional. Therefore, it cannot respond to ACTH stimulation. The baseline cortisol is low, and even with the administration of exogenous ACTH (cosyntropin), the adrenal glands are unable to synthesize and secrete cortisol, resulting in a flat or minimally responsive curve. A blunted response (D) is more typical of secondary insufficiency, where the glands are atrophied but retain some function. A high, non-responsive baseline (C) suggests a cortisol-producing adrenal tumor.

Question 12

Proximal muscle wasting and weakness are prominent features of Cushing syndrome. This is a direct result of the catabolic effects of excess cortisol on protein metabolism. Which physiological process is primarily responsible for this myopathy?

  1. Cortisol-induced hypokalemia, which impairs muscle membrane excitability and leads to functional weakness.
  2. Increased proteolysis in skeletal muscle to provide amino acid substrates for hepatic gluconeogenesis. (correct answer)
  3. Deposition of ectopic adipose tissue within muscle fascicles, which mechanically interferes with contraction.
  4. Suppression of neuromuscular transmission due to cortisol's inhibitory effects at the motor endplate.
Explanation: Glucocorticoids are catabolic hormones in peripheral tissues like muscle and bone. In a state of cortisol excess, there is increased breakdown of muscle protein (proteolysis) and inhibition of protein synthesis. The liberated amino acids are transported to the liver to serve as substrates for gluconeogenesis, contributing to the hyperglycemia seen in Cushing syndrome. This net loss of protein mass leads to the characteristic muscle wasting and weakness.

Question 13

A patient with undiagnosed chronic primary adrenal insufficiency undergoes emergency surgery for appendicitis. Postoperatively, the patient develops profound hypotension, hypoglycemia, and delirium. What is the core pathophysiology of this Addisonian crisis?

  1. The adrenal glands are unable to mount the necessary glucocorticoid surge required to cope with a major physiological stressor. (correct answer)
  2. Anesthetic agents used during the surgery caused acute and irreversible suppression of the entire HPA axis.
  3. The surgical stress induced acute bilateral adrenal hemorrhage, also known as Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome.
  4. A massive release of pre-formed catecholamines from the adrenal medulla was triggered by the stress, causing subsequent receptor desensitization.
Explanation: A healthy individual responds to major stress (like surgery) with a significant increase in cortisol secretion, which is vital for maintaining blood pressure, blood glucose, and vascular tone. In a patient with Addison disease, the adrenal glands are incapable of producing cortisol. The absence of this crucial stress response in the face of a major stressor leads to an acute crisis characterized by circulatory collapse (hypotension), hypoglycemia, and other systemic failures.

Question 14

A patient with confirmed Cushing syndrome undergoes a high-dose dexamethasone suppression test. Following administration of the drug, urinary and serum cortisol levels are suppressed by more than 50%. This result strongly suggests which underlying pathophysiology?

  1. An ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma that retains partial sensitivity to strong glucocorticoid negative feedback. (correct answer)
  2. An adrenal adenoma that is autonomously secreting cortisol, independent of HPA axis control.
  3. Ectopic production of ACTH by a non-pituitary tumor, such as a small-cell lung cancer.
  4. Factitious Cushing syndrome from the surreptitious use of exogenous glucocorticoids.
Explanation: The high-dose dexamethasone suppression test helps differentiate the causes of ACTH-dependent Cushing syndrome. Pituitary adenomas (Cushing's disease) are tumors of the pituitary's own corticotroph cells. While they oversecrete ACTH, they often retain some semblance of the normal feedback mechanism and can be suppressed by a very high dose of a potent glucocorticoid like dexamethasone. In contrast, ectopic ACTH-producing tumors (C) and cortisol-producing adrenal tumors (B) are typically completely autonomous and do not suppress.

Question 15

A patient with Addison disease is prone to hypoglycemia, whereas a patient with Cushing syndrome typically develops hyperglycemia. This metabolic divergence is best explained by cortisol's primary role in:

  1. Potentiating insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells.
  2. Stimulating hepatic gluconeogenesis and antagonizing the peripheral actions of insulin. (correct answer)
  3. Regulating the rate of glucose absorption from the gastrointestinal tract.
  4. Controlling the rate of glycogenolysis in both the liver and skeletal muscle.
Explanation: Cortisol is a key counter-regulatory hormone to insulin. In Cushing syndrome, excess cortisol stimulates the liver to produce glucose from non-carbohydrate sources (gluconeogenesis) and decreases the uptake and utilization of glucose by peripheral tissues like muscle and fat, leading to insulin resistance and hyperglycemia. Conversely, in Addison disease, the lack of cortisol impairs the body's ability to perform gluconeogenesis during fasting periods and increases insulin sensitivity, making the patient susceptible to hypoglycemia.

Question 16

A patient with long-standing, untreated Cushing syndrome is at high risk for vertebral compression fractures. The pathophysiology of this glucocorticoid-induced osteoporosis involves which dual effect of excess cortisol on bone metabolism?

  1. Induction of severe hypocalcemia by increasing urinary calcium excretion, which weakens the bone matrix.
  2. Stimulation of parathyroid hormone (PTH) secretion and suppression of vitamin D activation.
  3. Replacement of mineralized bone with adipose tissue, leading to a structurally weaker vertebral column.
  4. Inhibition of osteoblast function and promotion of osteoclast activity, leading to a net loss of bone mass. (correct answer)
Explanation: Glucocorticoid excess has devastating effects on bone. It directly inhibits the differentiation and function of osteoblasts, the cells responsible for bone formation. Simultaneously, it promotes bone resorption by increasing the expression of RANKL (receptor activator of nuclear factor κ-B ligand) and decreasing the expression of its decoy receptor, osteoprotegerin (OPG). This shifts the balance of bone remodeling heavily towards resorption. The combined effect of decreased formation and increased resorption leads to rapid bone loss and a high risk of fragility fractures.

Question 17

A patient with Cushing syndrome due to a cortisol-secreting adrenal adenoma develops persistent hypertension. While multifactorial, the primary pathophysiological mechanism driving the hypertension is:

  1. The adrenal tumor co-secretes large, unregulated amounts of both cortisol and aldosterone.
  2. Excess cortisol stimulates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), leading to secondary hyperaldosteronism.
  3. At supraphysiologic concentrations, cortisol binds to and activates mineralocorticoid receptors, mimicking aldosterone. (correct answer)
  4. Glucocorticoids increase the synthesis of catecholamines in the adrenal medulla, leading to sustained vasoconstriction.
Explanation: Cortisol and aldosterone have similar steroid structures. While aldosterone has a much higher affinity for the mineralocorticoid receptor (MR), the extremely high concentrations of cortisol in Cushing syndrome overwhelm the protective enzyme (11β-HSD2) that normally inactivates cortisol in mineralocorticoid-sensitive tissues. This allows cortisol to bind to and activate the MR, leading to sodium and water retention, potassium excretion, and hypertension, effectively mimicking the effects of excess aldosterone.

Question 18

A 45-year-old presents with new-onset central obesity, facial plethora, and proximal muscle weakness. A 24-hour urinary free cortisol measurement is markedly elevated. A follow-up plasma ACTH level is <5 pg/mL (normally 7-65 pg/mL). What is the most likely underlying pathophysiology?

  1. Chronic ingestion of an exogenous glucocorticoid, leading to suppression of the endogenous HPA axis.
  2. An intermittently secreting pituitary adenoma, with blood drawn during a quiescent phase.
  3. A defect in the cortisol receptor causing glucocorticoid resistance and a compensatory rise in cortisol.
  4. Autonomous cortisol production from an adrenal neoplasm, which suppresses the HPA axis. (correct answer)
Explanation: When you encounter a patient with Cushing's syndrome (excess cortisol causing central obesity, facial plethora, and proximal weakness), you need to determine the source of excess cortisol by analyzing the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis feedback loop. The key insight here is understanding how ACTH levels help localize the problem. This patient has high cortisol (elevated 24-hour urinary free cortisol) but suppressed ACTH (<5 pg/mL). Since ACTH normally stimulates cortisol production, you need to explain why cortisol is high while ACTH is low. Answer D is correct because an autonomous adrenal tumor produces cortisol independently of ACTH stimulation. The high cortisol then suppresses the HPA axis through negative feedback, leading to low ACTH levels. This creates the classic pattern: high cortisol + low ACTH = primary adrenal source. Answer A is wrong because while exogenous glucocorticoids would suppress ACTH, they would also suppress endogenous cortisol production, so urinary free cortisol would be low, not elevated. Answer B is wrong because a pituitary adenoma would cause high ACTH (not low), leading to secondary hypercortisolism. Even if sampled during a "quiescent phase," you wouldn't see this degree of cortisol elevation with suppressed ACTH. Answer C is wrong because glucocorticoid resistance would cause high ACTH as the body attempts to overcome the resistance, not suppressed ACTH. Study tip: Remember the ACTH pattern: High cortisol + Low ACTH = Primary adrenal problem. High cortisol + High ACTH = Pituitary or ectopic ACTH source.

Question 19

A patient is diagnosed with Cushing syndrome secondary to a cortisol-secreting adenoma of the right adrenal gland. What is the most likely pathophysiological consequence for the contralateral (left) adrenal gland?

  1. Compensatory hypertrophy to help metabolize the excessive circulating cortisol.
  2. Atrophy due to chronic suppression of pituitary ACTH secretion by the high cortisol levels. (correct answer)
  3. Development of a similar adenoma due to a systemic tropic factor.
  4. No significant change, as the two adrenal glands are regulated independently.
Explanation: The high level of cortisol produced by the right adrenal adenoma exerts strong negative feedback on the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. This suppresses the release of CRH and ACTH. ACTH is the primary trophic hormone for the adrenal cortex (specifically the zona fasciculata and reticularis). Without ACTH stimulation, the cells of the contralateral (left) adrenal cortex will atrophy over time. This is an important clinical concept, as removing the tumor will lead to a period of adrenal insufficiency until the HPA axis recovers.

Question 20

A patient with Addison disease is prone to hypoglycemia, whereas a patient with Cushing syndrome typically develops hyperglycemia. This metabolic divergence is best explained by cortisol's primary role in:

  1. Potentiating insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells.
  2. Stimulating hepatic gluconeogenesis and antagonizing the peripheral actions of insulin. (correct answer)
  3. Regulating the rate of glucose absorption from the gastrointestinal tract.
  4. Controlling the rate of glycogenolysis in both the liver and skeletal muscle.
Explanation: Cortisol is a key counter-regulatory hormone to insulin. In Cushing syndrome, excess cortisol stimulates the liver to produce glucose from non-carbohydrate sources (gluconeogenesis) and decreases the uptake and utilization of glucose by peripheral tissues like muscle and fat, leading to insulin resistance and hyperglycemia. Conversely, in Addison disease, the lack of cortisol impairs the body's ability to perform gluconeogenesis during fasting periods and increases insulin sensitivity, making the patient susceptible to hypoglycemia.