Nremt Paramedic Level Quiz: Pediatric Medical And Trauma Emergencies

What this quiz covers

This quiz focuses on Pediatric Medical And Trauma Emergencies, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for Nremt Paramedic Level.

How to use this quiz

Try each quiz question before looking at the correct answer. Use the explanations to review missed ideas, then come back to similar questions until the pattern feels familiar.

Question 1

1. Respiratory distress.
2. Respiratory failure.
3. Cardiopulmonary failure. (correct answer)
4. Compensated shock.

Explanation: The Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT) evaluates three components: Appearance, Work of Breathing, and Circulation to the Skin. In this case, 'motionless' indicates an abnormal Appearance. 'Audible grunting' indicates abnormal Work of Breathing. 'Mottled skin' indicates abnormal Circulation. When all three sides of the PAT are abnormal, the child is categorized as being in cardiopulmonary failure, representing the most severe state of physiologic compromise.

Question 2

1. Administer a 20 mL/kg isotonic crystalloid bolus. (correct answer)
2. Initiate a vasopressor infusion such as epinephrine.
3. Place the patient in a Trendelenburg position and apply oxygen.
4. Withhold fluid boluses until frank hypotension develops.

Explanation: This child is in compensated shock, most likely septic or hypovolemic. Key signs include tachycardia, altered mental status (lethargy), and poor perfusion (cool extremities, delayed capillary refill), despite a blood pressure that is still in the low-normal range for his age. The cornerstone of initial management for pediatric septic or hypovolemic shock is aggressive volume resuscitation with an isotonic crystalloid at 20 mL/kg.

Question 3

1. 7 mL of Dextrose 50% (D50).
2. 35 mL of Dextrose 10% (D10). (correct answer)
3. 14 mL of Dextrose 25% (D25).
4. 70 mL of Dextrose 5% (D5).

Explanation: The correct dose of dextrose for pediatric hypoglycemia is 0.5-1.0 g/kg. Using 0.5 g/kg: 0.5 g/kg * 7 kg = 3.5 grams of dextrose needed. Dextrose 10% (D10) contains 10 g per 100 mL, or 0.1 g per mL. To deliver 3.5 g, you need 35 mL (3.5 g / 0.1 g/mL). D10 is the preferred concentration for infants to reduce the risk of tissue injury from the hyperosmolar solution if extravasation occurs.

Question 4

1. Administer 0.25 mg of Epinephrine (1:1,000) via the intramuscular route. (correct answer)
2. Establish IV access and administer 25 mg of diphenhydramine.
3. Administer 0.25 mg of Epinephrine (1:10,000) via the IV route.
4. Administer a nebulized albuterol treatment for the stridor.

Explanation: The patient is exhibiting signs of anaphylaxis with involvement of multiple systems: integumentary (urticaria), respiratory (stridor, throat tightness), and cardiovascular (hypotension). The first-line, life-saving treatment is intramuscular (IM) epinephrine. The correct dose is 0.01 mg/kg of the 1:1,000 concentration. For a 25 kg child, this is 0.01 mg/kg * 25 kg = 0.25 mg.

Question 5

1. Deliver a series of 5 back blows followed by 5 chest thrusts.
2. Perform a blind finger sweep to attempt to remove the object.
3. Encourage the child to continue coughing while providing supplemental oxygen. (correct answer)
4. Immediately perform direct laryngoscopy to remove the object.

Explanation: The child has a partial or mild airway obstruction, indicated by his ability to generate a forceful cough and maintain good air exchange (pink skin). According to BLS/PALS guidelines, as long as the child has an effective cough, you should not interfere. The most appropriate action is to encourage the child to continue coughing, provide oxygen as tolerated, and monitor closely for signs of the obstruction worsening.

Question 6

1. Multiple rib fractures leading to a flail chest segment.
2. Simple pneumothorax from a fractured rib.
3. Traumatic aortic dissection.
4. A significant pulmonary contusion. (correct answer)

Explanation: When evaluating pediatric chest trauma, remember that children have highly elastic chest walls that can transmit significant force to internal organs without obvious external injury. This elasticity often protects against rib fractures but allows energy transfer to underlying structures. The key clinical findings here point to pulmonary contusion: moderate respiratory distress, decreased oxygen saturation (90%), sternal bruising from the car seat restraint, and unilateral decreased breath sounds. The stable chest wall with no crepitus indicates the ribs absorbed and transmitted force rather than fracturing. Pulmonary contusion develops when blunt force causes bleeding and swelling in lung tissue, leading to ventilation-perfusion mismatch and hypoxemia. Choice A is incorrect because flail chest requires multiple adjacent rib fractures, which would cause chest wall instability and crepitus - both absent here. The elastic pediatric chest wall makes this injury pattern uncommon in young children. Choice B is wrong because simple pneumothorax typically presents with absent (not just decreased) breath sounds and would likely cause more severe respiratory distress. Additionally, rib fractures are less common in this age group due to chest wall flexibility. Choice C, traumatic aortic dissection, is extremely rare in pediatric patients and wouldn't explain the unilateral decreased breath sounds or moderate respiratory symptoms. This injury typically causes severe shock or sudden death. Remember that in pediatric chest trauma, the absence of rib fractures doesn't rule out serious internal injury. The flexible chest wall often protects bones while transmitting energy to organs, making pulmonary contusion a common and serious injury pattern in restrained children involved in motor vehicle collisions.

Question 7

1. Pyloric stenosis.
2. Gastroenteritis.
3. Intussusception. (correct answer)
4. Appendicitis.

Explanation: This is the classic presentation of intussusception, a condition where one segment of the intestine telescopes into another. The key features are intermittent, severe, colicky abdominal pain (causing the drawing up of legs), periods of lethargy, and the pathognomonic "currant jelly" stools (a mix of blood and mucus from venous congestion and ischemia of the bowel).

Question 8

1. Administer a subcutaneous injection of her prescribed long-acting insulin.
2. Administer sodium bicarbonate to correct the metabolic acidosis.
3. Administer 50% Dextrose due to her altered mental status.
4. Initiate an IV of Normal Saline and administer a 20 mL/kg fluid bolus. (correct answer)

Explanation: When you encounter a pediatric diabetic emergency with severely elevated glucose and Kussmaul respirations, you're dealing with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) - a life-threatening condition requiring immediate, systematic intervention. The key is understanding that DKA creates a cascade of problems: severe dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and metabolic acidosis. The correct intervention is D) IV Normal Saline with 20 mL/kg fluid bolus because severe dehydration is the most immediately life-threatening aspect of DKA. The patient's glucose of 650 mg/dL has caused massive osmotic diuresis, leading to profound fluid loss. Restoring intravascular volume takes priority - it improves tissue perfusion, helps normalize electrolytes, and actually begins lowering glucose through dilution and improved kidney function. A is wrong because subcutaneous insulin absorption is unpredictable in dehydrated patients, and insulin should only be given after fluid resuscitation begins. B is incorrect because sodium bicarbonate can worsen hypokalemia and cerebral edema - the acidosis will correct as ketone production stops with proper fluid and insulin therapy. C represents a dangerous trap: never give dextrose to a hyperglycemic patient. The altered mental status stems from hyperosmolarity and acidosis, not hypoglycemia. NREMT Strategy: In DKA questions, always prioritize fluid resuscitation before insulin or other interventions. Remember the mnemonic "Fluids First" - dehydration kills faster than acidosis in the prehospital setting. Watch for the classic triad: hyperglycemia, Kussmaul respirations, and fruity breath odor.

Question 9

1. Administer a nebulized albuterol treatment to address the wheezing.
2. Suction the nares and provide supplemental oxygen to improve oxygenation. (correct answer)
3. Establish IO access and administer a 20 mL/kg normal saline bolus.
4. Administer intramuscular epinephrine 1:1,000 for upper airway inflammation.

Explanation: The patient's presentation (age, preceding upper respiratory infection, low-grade fever, wheezing) is classic for bronchiolitis. The primary pathophysiology involves inflammation and mucus plugging of the small airways. The cornerstone of prehospital management is supportive care, which includes clearing the airway of secretions (especially in obligate nose-breathing infants) and providing supplemental oxygen to correct hypoxia.

Question 10

1. Administer rectal diazepam to prevent further seizure activity.
2. Establish IV access and administer a 20 mL/kg fluid bolus for dehydration.
3. Begin passive cooling measures and transport for medical evaluation. (correct answer)
4. Administer acetaminophen and advise the parents to follow up with their pediatrician.

Explanation: This presentation is consistent with a simple febrile seizure, which has resolved. The appropriate management is supportive care. This includes ensuring airway patency, monitoring vital signs, providing passive cooling (e.g., removing excessive clothing), and transporting the child for a medical evaluation to confirm the diagnosis and rule out more serious causes of a first-time seizure with fever, such as meningitis.

Question 11

1. Administer activated charcoal and transport to the hospital. (correct answer)
2. Reassure the parents and advise them to monitor for nausea or vomiting.
3. Induce vomiting using syrup of ipecac to empty the stomach.
4. Establish IV access and prepare to administer N-acetylcysteine (NAC).

Explanation: In a potentially toxic acetaminophen ingestion within the last 1-2 hours, the administration of activated charcoal is indicated to decrease absorption of the drug. The child must be transported to the hospital for evaluation, even if asymptomatic, because the first stage of acetaminophen toxicity is often clinically silent but can progress to irreversible liver failure if untreated.

Question 12

1. 720 mL of Lactated Ringer's. (correct answer)
2. 1440 mL of Normal Saline.
3. 360 mL of Lactated Ringer's.
4. 800 mL of 5% Dextrose in Normal Saline.

Explanation: This requires a multi-step calculation. First, determine the Body Surface Area (BSA) burned using the Rule of Nines for children: chest (9%) + abdomen (9%) = 18% BSA. Second, use the Parkland formula (4 mL x body weight in kg x %BSA) to calculate the 24-hour fluid requirement: 4 mL x 20 kg x 18% = 1440 mL. Third, half of this total volume is given in the first 8 hours: 1440 mL / 2 = 720 mL. Lactated Ringer's is the preferred isotonic crystalloid for burn resuscitation.

Question 13

1. Attempt vagal maneuvers by applying an ice pack to the face.
2. Administer adenosine 0.1 mg/kg rapid IV push. (correct answer)
3. Perform synchronized cardioversion at 0.5 J/kg.
4. Administer amiodarone 5 mg/kg IV over 20 minutes.

Explanation: The infant has supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) with signs of instability (hypotension for age, poor perfusion). According to PALS guidelines, if IV/IO access is available, the first-line treatment for SVT (stable or unstable) is adenosine. The initial dose is 0.1 mg/kg given as a rapid push.

Question 14

1. A 100 mL bolus of Normal Saline.
2. A 200 mL bolus of Normal Saline. (correct answer)
3. A 200 mL bolus of D5 0.45% Saline.
4. A 400 mL bolus of Lactated Ringer's.

Explanation: The standard initial fluid bolus for treating moderate to severe dehydration and hypovolemia in pediatric patients (excluding neonates and those with cardiogenic shock) is 20 mL/kg of an isotonic crystalloid (Normal Saline or Lactated Ringer's). For a 10 kg child, this calculates to 20 mL/kg * 10 kg = 200 mL.

Question 15

1. Administer acetaminophen for the fever and transport non-emergently.
2. Advise parents this is likely a viral illness and focus on passive cooling measures.
3. Focus on fluid resuscitation with a 20 mL/kg bolus for suspected sepsis.
4. Initiate appropriate PPE, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport rapidly. (correct answer)

Explanation: When you encounter an infant with high fever, lethargy, and a non-blanching petechial rash, you're looking at a classic presentation of bacterial meningitis or sepsis - both life-threatening emergencies requiring immediate recognition and action. The non-blanching petechial rash is the critical finding here. Unlike viral rashes that disappear when pressure is applied, petechiae indicate bleeding under the skin from damaged capillaries, often associated with meningococcal disease or other serious bacterial infections. Combined with fever and altered mental status (lethargy, weak cry), this triad demands emergency management. Option D is correct because it addresses all priorities: PPE protects you from potentially contagious bacterial disease, high-flow oxygen supports circulation in a potentially septic patient, and rapid transport gets the infant to definitive antibiotic therapy quickly - time is critical in bacterial meningitis. Option A fails because acetaminophen won't address the underlying bacterial infection, and non-emergent transport delays life-saving treatment. Option B is dangerous because it dismisses a bacterial emergency as viral - the petechial rash should immediately rule out simple viral illness. Option C focuses solely on fluid resuscitation, which while important in sepsis, ignores infection control measures and doesn't prioritize rapid transport for antibiotics. Remember: non-blanching petechial rash + fever + altered mental status in any patient, especially infants, equals bacterial emergency. Don't get distracted by individual symptoms - recognize the pattern and act fast with appropriate precautions.

Question 16

1. Perforated bowel with peritonitis.
2. Splenic injury with referred diaphragmatic irritation. (correct answer)
3. Rib fractures with a resultant pneumothorax.
4. Renal contusion with retroperitoneal bleeding.

Explanation: This clinical picture is classic for a splenic injury. The patient has signs of hemorrhagic shock (tachycardia, hypotension, pale/cool skin) after blunt abdominal trauma. The combination of left upper quadrant (LUQ) pain (location of the spleen) and referred left shoulder pain (Kehr's sign, caused by diaphragmatic irritation from blood) is highly specific for a splenic rupture.

Question 17

1. Apply a rigid cervical collar and secure the patient to a long backboard.
2. Place a cervical collar but allow the patient to be transported on the stretcher.
3. Forego spinal motion restriction and transport the patient in a position of comfort. (correct answer)
4. Manually stabilize the cervical spine throughout transport to the hospital.

Explanation: This patient meets the criteria for having a low risk of a clinically significant cervical spine injury (e.g., NEXUS criteria). He is alert and oriented, has no midline spinal tenderness, no focal neurologic deficit, no evidence of intoxication, and no painful distracting injury. In such cases, current evidence-based guidelines support forgoing formal spinal motion restriction. The patient can be transported safely in a position of comfort.

Question 18

1. Establish IO access and administer a 20 mL/kg normal saline bolus.
2. Provide assisted ventilations to maintain an ETCO2 of 30-35 mmHg.
3. Maintain oxygenation and provide ventilatory support to avoid hypoxia and hypercarbia. (correct answer)
4. Immediately perform endotracheal intubation to definitively secure the airway.

Explanation: The patient is exhibiting Cushing's triad for an infant (bradycardia, irregular respirations, hypertension) and has a bulging fontanelle, all signs of critically increased intracranial pressure (ICP). The most critical priority is preventing secondary brain injury by ensuring adequate oxygenation (avoiding hypoxia) and ventilation to maintain normocarbia (avoiding hypercarbia, which causes vasodilation and worsens ICP).

Question 19

1. Visualize the oropharynx with a tongue blade to assess for swelling.
2. Administer nebulized racemic epinephrine immediately.
3. Provide blow-by oxygen and transport rapidly in a position of comfort. (correct answer)
4. Establish IV access for antibiotic administration.

Explanation: This presentation (high fever, tripod position, drooling, dysphagia, distress) is highly suggestive of epiglottitis, a life-threatening bacterial infection causing supraglottic swelling. The primary goal of prehospital management is to avoid agitating the child, as this can trigger complete airway obstruction. The safest course is to keep the child calm, allow them to maintain a position of comfort, provide supplemental oxygen, and transport immediately to a facility capable of securing a definitive airway.