Nremt Paramedic Level Quiz: Cardiac Arrest And Post Resuscitation Care

What this quiz covers

This quiz focuses on Cardiac Arrest And Post Resuscitation Care, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for Nremt Paramedic Level.

How to use this quiz

Try each quiz question before looking at the correct answer. Use the explanations to review missed ideas, then come back to similar questions until the pattern feels familiar.

Question 1

1. The patient has achieved return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC).
2. The compressor has become fatigued, decreasing perfusion.
3. There has been a displacement of the endotracheal tube. (correct answer)
4. The patient is developing severe intracellular acidosis.

Explanation: A sudden, sharp drop in ETCO2 to near-zero during CPR, when compressions are ongoing, is highly indicative of endotracheal tube displacement from the trachea. ROSC would cause a sharp increase in ETCO2. Compressor fatigue would cause a gradual decline, not a sudden drop. While acidosis develops during arrest, it does not cause an abrupt change in the ETCO2 reading.

Question 2

1. Amiodarone to narrow the QRS complex.
2. Calcium gluconate to stabilize the myocardium.
3. Sodium bicarbonate to overcome sodium channel blockade. (correct answer)
4. Naloxone to reverse potential opioid effects.

Explanation: The clinical picture of overdose with a wide-complex bradycardia is highly suggestive of TCA toxicity. TCAs cause cardiotoxicity by blocking fast sodium channels. The treatment is to administer sodium bicarbonate, which increases the extracellular sodium concentration and changes serum pH, helping to overcome this blockade and narrow the QRS complex. The other medications do not address the specific pathophysiology of TCA poisoning.

Question 3

1. Hypovolemia, requiring an immediate fluid bolus.
2. Tension pneumothorax, requiring needle decompression.
3. Hyperkalemia, requiring calcium and sodium bicarbonate. (correct answer)
4. Pulmonary embolism, requiring consideration of thrombolytics.

Explanation: The combination of ESRD history (implying poor potassium clearance) and a bradycardic, wide-complex rhythm is classic for severe hyperkalemia. This is a critical reversible cause (an 'H' of the H's and T's) that must be treated with calcium to stabilize the cardiac membrane, followed by agents like sodium bicarbonate and albuterol to shift potassium intracellularly.

Question 4

1. Sodium bicarbonate 1 mEq/kg to correct acidosis.
2. Furosemide 40 mg to promote potassium excretion.
3. Calcium chloride 1 gram to stabilize the cardiac membrane. (correct answer)
4. Amiodarone 300 mg to treat potential ectopy.

Explanation: In a patient with ESRD who has missed dialysis, hyperkalemia is a highly probable cause of the cardiac arrest. The priority treatment for hyperkalemia-induced cardiac arrest is calcium chloride (or gluconate) to stabilize the cardiac myocyte membrane against the effects of high potassium. While sodium bicarbonate is also used, calcium is the first-line agent for cardiac membrane stabilization. Furosemide is ineffective in an anuric ESRD patient. Amiodarone is not indicated for asystole.

Question 5

1. Administer a 1-liter bolus of an isotonic crystalloid solution. (correct answer)
2. Initiate a vasopressor infusion of norepinephrine at 0.1 mcg/kg/min.
3. Administer a 1 mg IV push of epinephrine 1:10,000 solution.
4. Place the patient in a modified Trendelenburg position for circulatory support.

Explanation: The initial management of post-ROSC hypotension, in the absence of clear signs of cardiogenic shock like pulmonary edema, is fluid resuscitation with an isotonic crystalloid bolus. Vasopressors are indicated if the patient does not respond to fluids. An IV push of epinephrine is a cardiac arrest dose and is inappropriate for managing post-ROSC hypotension. The Trendelenburg position is a temporizing measure and not considered a primary intervention.

Question 6

1. Administering a different class of antiarrhythmic medication, such as lidocaine.
2. Conducting a rapid search for and treatment of any underlying reversible causes. (correct answer)
3. Increasing the energy setting on the defibrillator for subsequent shocks.
4. Focusing solely on chest compressions and transport without further interventions.

Explanation: When a patient remains in refractory VF despite adherence to the standard ACLS algorithm, the team must actively search for and treat potential reversible causes (the H's and T's). The persistent, reasonable ETCO2 suggests some circulation is being generated, making a reversible cause more plausible. While another antiarrhythmic is an option, a systematic search for a treatable cause (e.g., hypoxia, acidosis, toxins, coronary thrombosis) is the highest priority.

Question 7

1. Pause compressions to deliver two breaths every 30 compressions.
2. Deliver one breath every 6 seconds, asynchronously with chest compressions. (correct answer)
3. Deliver one breath every 3-5 seconds, timed between compressions.
4. Provide continuous positive pressure ventilation without distinct breaths.

Explanation: Once an advanced airway (like an endotracheal tube) is in place, chest compressions should be continuous and uninterrupted. Ventilations are delivered asynchronously at a rate of one breath every 6 seconds (10 breaths per minute). The 30:2 ratio is used before an advanced airway is placed. Ventilating every 3-5 seconds is too fast and can impede venous return.

Question 8

1. Benzodiazepines, such as lorazepam or midazolam. (correct answer)
2. Antiarrhythmics, such as amiodarone.
3. Vasopressors, such as norepinephrine.
4. Paralytics, such as rocuronium.

Explanation: When you encounter a post-cardiac arrest patient exhibiting rhythmic jerking movements, you're dealing with post-anoxic seizures - a common and serious complication following return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC). The brain tissue suffered hypoxic injury during the arrest, and seizure activity indicates ongoing neuronal dysfunction that requires immediate intervention. Benzodiazepines like lorazepam or midazolam are the first-line treatment for seizures because they enhance GABA neurotransmitter activity, which has an inhibitory effect on the central nervous system. This calms the abnormal electrical activity in the brain and terminates the seizure. Answer A is correct because it directly addresses the underlying pathophysiology. Answer B (antiarrhythmics like amiodarone) treats cardiac rhythm disturbances, not seizures. While rhythm monitoring remains important post-ROSC, the rhythmic jerking described is neurological, not cardiac in origin. Answer C (vasopressors like norepinephrine) addresses hypotension and poor perfusion. Though blood pressure support may be needed post-arrest, vasopressors won't stop seizure activity and could potentially worsen cerebral oxygen demand. Answer D (paralytics like rocuronium) only masks seizure activity by preventing muscle movement - the abnormal brain activity continues underneath, potentially causing further neuronal damage. Never use paralytics alone for seizures. Remember: Post-arrest seizures require aggressive treatment because continued seizure activity increases cerebral oxygen consumption and can worsen neurological outcomes. Always think "benzodiazepines first" when you see rhythmic jerking movements in any patient, especially post-arrest scenarios.

Question 9

1. A palpable pulse is required to confirm circulation; if absent, begin CPR immediately.
2. The humming sound confirms the LVAD is working, so chest compressions are contraindicated.
3. Assess other signs of perfusion like blood pressure (via Doppler) and ETCO2 if intubated. (correct answer)
4. Immediately deactivate the LVAD to allow for accurate rhythm analysis and defibrillation.

Explanation: Patients with continuous-flow LVADs may not have a palpable pulse despite adequate circulation. The presence of the LVAD's hum indicates the pump is functioning. Before initiating CPR (which can be hazardous), paramedics should assess for other signs of perfusion, such as obtaining a mean arterial pressure with a Doppler ultrasound and assessing ETCO2. CPR is generally a last resort and performed only after consulting medical control or specific LVAD protocols.

Question 10

1. An additional 150 mg bolus of amiodarone.
2. Lidocaine 1.0 to 1.5 mg/kg IV/IO. (correct answer)
3. Magnesium sulfate 2 grams IV/IO.
4. Sodium bicarbonate 1 mEq/kg IV/IO.

Explanation: When ventricular fibrillation is refractory to shocks, epinephrine, and an initial dose of amiodarone, lidocaine may be considered as an alternative antiarrhythmic. An additional dose of amiodarone (150 mg) can be given, but lidocaine is the appropriate alternative agent to consider. Magnesium is indicated for Torsades de Pointes, and sodium bicarbonate is not indicated for refractory V-Fib without a specific underlying cause like TCA overdose or hyperkalemia.

Question 11

1. Administer an additional 1-liter fluid bolus of normal saline.
2. Pace the patient transcutaneously to decrease the heart rate.
3. Administer a calcium chloride bolus to improve cardiac contractility.
4. Initiate a vasopressor infusion, such as norepinephrine or dopamine. (correct answer)

Explanation: Post-ROSC hypotension requires systematic evaluation of the underlying cause to guide appropriate treatment. When you encounter persistent hypotension after fluid resuscitation, consider the three main categories: hypovolemia, pump failure (cardiogenic), or distributive shock. This patient has already received adequate fluid resuscitation (1L bolus) without improvement, and the clear lung sounds suggest fluid overload isn't the issue. The combination of hypotension, tachycardia, and failed fluid response in a post-cardiac arrest patient strongly indicates distributive shock or severe myocardial dysfunction requiring vasopressor support. Option D is correct because vasopressors like norepinephrine or dopamine are the appropriate next intervention. Norepinephrine provides both alpha-adrenergic vasoconstriction and some beta-adrenergic inotropic support, making it ideal for distributive shock. Dopamine offers dose-dependent effects that can address both cardiac contractility and vascular tone. Option A is wrong because additional fluid boluses risk pulmonary edema without addressing the underlying vascular or cardiac dysfunction. Option B is incorrect because transcutaneous pacing wouldn't decrease this heart rate (the tachycardia is compensatory, not a primary rhythm disturbance), and slower rates would likely worsen the hypotension. Option C is flawed because calcium chloride is primarily indicated for hyperkalemia, calcium channel blocker overdose, or specific electrolyte abnormalities—not routine post-ROSC hypotension. Remember: In post-ROSC patients, persistent hypotension after adequate fluid resuscitation typically requires vasopressor support. Don't delay definitive treatment by continuing ineffective fluid boluses.

Question 12

1. Explain that current guidelines recommend a single shock followed immediately by chest compressions. (correct answer)
2. Agree and deliver the three stacked shocks as it is the fastest way to convert the rhythm.
3. Deliver one shock, then check for a pulse before deciding on the next action.
4. Administer 1 mg of epinephrine before delivering any shocks to improve myocardial perfusion.

Explanation: When you encounter cardiac arrest questions on the NREMT, focus on current AHA guidelines, which have evolved significantly over the years based on evidence about circulation and perfusion. Current resuscitation guidelines emphasize minimizing interruptions to chest compressions because effective CPR maintains critical blood flow to the heart and brain. For witnessed ventricular fibrillation, the protocol is one shock followed immediately by high-quality chest compressions for 2 minutes before reassessing the rhythm. This approach maximizes the chances of successful defibrillation while ensuring continuous perfusion. Answer A correctly reflects this evidence-based approach. Answer B represents outdated practice from earlier AHA guidelines when "stacked shocks" (three consecutive shocks) were recommended. This approach has been abandoned because it delays chest compressions and reduces survival rates. Answer C suggests checking for a pulse after one shock, but pulse checks should only occur during scheduled rhythm assessments every 2 minutes, not after individual shocks, as they cause unnecessary delays and are often unreliable. Answer D proposes giving epinephrine before any electrical therapy, but medications are secondary to immediate defibrillation and CPR in the initial management of shockable rhythms. The key principle is that chest compressions are the foundation of resuscitation. Even after successful defibrillation, the heart needs time to recover effective contractility, and CPR bridges this gap by maintaining circulation. Study tip: When you see cardiac arrest scenarios, always prioritize the CAB sequence (Compressions-Airway-Breathing) and remember that current guidelines minimize interruptions to chest compressions. Outdated practices like stacked shocks are common distractors on the NREMT.

Question 13

1. Continue providing 100% oxygen to maximize tissue oxygenation and prevent re-arrest.
2. Titrate the oxygen concentration down to maintain an SpO2 between 94% and 99%. (correct answer)
3. Decrease the ventilation rate to induce mild hypercapnia and improve cerebral blood flow.
4. Remove supplemental oxygen entirely to assess his ability to maintain saturation on room air.

Explanation: Post-ROSC guidelines emphasize avoiding both hypoxia and hyperoxia. Hyperoxia can cause free radical formation and worsen reperfusion injury, particularly to the brain. The goal is to titrate supplemental oxygen to maintain an SpO2 of 94-99%. Continuing 100% oxygen is potentially harmful. Removing oxygen entirely is inappropriate for a comatose, intubated patient.

Question 14

1. Administration of high-dose corticosteroids to reduce cerebral edema.
2. Initiation of protocols for targeted temperature management (TTM). (correct answer)
3. Prophylactic administration of an anti-seizure medication.
4. Rapid transport to the nearest hyperbaric oxygen therapy chamber.

Explanation: For comatose adult patients who achieve ROSC after cardiac arrest but do not have a STEMI, targeted temperature management (TTM), also known as therapeutic hypothermia, is a critical intervention proven to improve neurological outcomes. Corticosteroids and prophylactic anti-seizure medications are not routinely recommended. Hyperbaric oxygen is not a standard post-ROSC therapy.

Question 15

1. Transport to the closest hospital to ensure immediate stabilization.
2. Transport to a designated stroke center for neurological evaluation.
3. Transport directly to a hospital with percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) capability. (correct answer)
4. Transport to a trauma center due to the unwitnessed nature of his collapse.

Explanation: The post-ROSC 12-lead ECG shows a clear ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). The definitive treatment for STEMI is reperfusion therapy, most commonly PCI. Even though the patient is comatose, he should be transported directly to a PCI-capable center to address the underlying cause of his cardiac arrest. Transporting to the closest non-PCI facility would delay definitive care.

Question 16

1. Aggressive fluid resuscitation to correct hypovolemia.
2. Early administration of sodium bicarbonate for acidosis.
3. Rapid rewarming measures due to likely hypothermia.
4. Effective oxygenation and ventilation to reverse severe hypoxia. (correct answer)

Explanation: The primary cause of cardiac arrest in drowning victims is profound hypoxia. Therefore, the cornerstone of resuscitation is aggressive and effective oxygenation and ventilation. While hypovolemia, acidosis, and hypothermia may be present and require management, reversing the primary hypoxic insult is the highest priority and offers the best chance of survival.

Question 17

1. Resume chest compressions and administer 1 mg of epinephrine.
2. Deliver an immediate unsynchronized shock at 200 joules (biphasic). (correct answer)
3. Administer a 300 mg bolus of amiodarone immediately.
4. Perform synchronized cardioversion at 100 joules.

Explanation: When a patient re-arrests into a shockable rhythm (VF/pVT), the immediate priority is defibrillation. Chest compressions should be performed while the defibrillator is charging, but the shock should be delivered as soon as possible. Epinephrine and amiodarone are given later in the algorithm if the initial shock is unsuccessful. Synchronized cardioversion is for unstable tachycardias with a pulse.

Question 18

1. Maintain the highest possible oxygen saturation, targeting an SpO2 of 100%.
2. Induce mild hypocapnia by hyperventilating to an ETCO2 of 30-35 mmHg.
3. Set the ventilation rate at a fixed 12 breaths/minute regardless of ETCO2.
4. Maintain normocapnia by titrating ventilations to an ETCO2 of 35-45 mmHg. (correct answer)

Explanation: The primary ventilatory goal in post-ROSC care is to maintain normocapnia (ETCO2 35-45 mmHg) to ensure adequate cerebral perfusion. Hyperventilation (hypocapnia) causes cerebral vasoconstriction and worsens neurological outcomes. Similarly, hyperoxia (SpO2 100%) can be harmful, and oxygen should be titrated to maintain SpO2 between 94-99%. A fixed rate is not the goal; the goal is the physiological state of normocapnia.

Question 19

1. Increase the high-pressure limit alarm setting on the ventilator.
2. Administer a sedative to prevent the patient from fighting the ventilator.
3. Disconnect the patient from the ventilator and begin manual ventilation. (correct answer)
4. Immediately suction the endotracheal tube to clear a potential obstruction.

Explanation: When a ventilator alarms, the immediate priority is to ensure the patient is being safely ventilated. The quickest and safest first step is to disconnect the patient from the machine and manually ventilate with a bag-valve device. This confirms the ability to ventilate the patient and allows the paramedic to feel for compliance issues while simultaneously beginning to troubleshoot the cause (e.g., obstruction, kinking, pneumothorax, patient agitation). Suctioning may be the solution, but manual ventilation comes first.

Question 20

1. A persistent end-tidal CO2 reading of less than 10 mmHg. (correct answer)
2. The patient's initial rhythm was non-shockable (asystole).
3. The patient's pupils have remained fixed and dilated throughout the code.
4. Family members on scene state the patient had a DNR, but cannot find it.

Explanation: A persistent ETCO2 level below 10 mmHg after 20 minutes of high-quality CPR is a strong indicator of poor perfusion and a very low likelihood of achieving ROSC. This is a key objective factor used in many termination of resuscitation protocols. While a non-shockable rhythm is a poor prognostic sign, and fixed pupils are common, neither is as quantitatively predictive as a persistently low ETCO2. An unverified DNR cannot be acted upon.