Nremt Paramedic Level Quiz: Bradycardia And Tachycardia Management

What this quiz covers

This quiz focuses on Bradycardia And Tachycardia Management, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for Nremt Paramedic Level.

How to use this quiz

Try each quiz question before looking at the correct answer. Use the explanations to review missed ideas, then come back to similar questions until the pattern feels familiar.

Question 1

1. Synchronized cardioversion at 0.5-1 J/kg. (correct answer)
2. Adenosine 0.1 mg/kg rapid IV push.
3. Amiodarone 5 mg/kg over 30 minutes.
4. Administer a 20 mL/kg normal saline bolus and reassess.

Explanation: This infant is exhibiting signs of shock (lethargy, mottling, delayed capillary refill, hypotension), making this unstable supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). According to PALS guidelines, unstable SVT requires immediate synchronized cardioversion. The initial dose is 0.5-1 J/kg. Adenosine is the treatment for stable SVT. While a fluid bolus is also indicated, it should not delay the definitive treatment of cardioversion.

Question 2

1. Amiodarone
2. Procainamide
3. Verapamil (correct answer)
4. Adenosine

Explanation: An undifferentiated regular wide-complex tachycardia must be treated as ventricular tachycardia until proven otherwise. Administering an AV nodal blocking agent, such as the calcium channel blocker Verapamil (or Diltiazem), can block the AV node and remove any supraventricular drive, leading to profound hypotension or ventricular fibrillation if the rhythm is VT. Amiodarone and Procainamide are appropriate antiarrhythmics for stable VT. Adenosine may be used diagnostically.

Question 3

1. Synchronized cardioversion.
2. Administration of Procainamide.
3. Consultation with medical control.
4. Administration of Diltiazem. (correct answer)

Explanation: This patient has atrial fibrillation with conduction over an accessory pathway (WPW), resulting in an irregular, wide-complex tachycardia. Administering an AV nodal blocking agent such as Diltiazem (a calcium channel blocker), Adenosine, or a beta-blocker is extremely dangerous. It can block the normal AV pathway, forcing all impulses down the fast accessory pathway, which can lead to ventricular fibrillation. Procainamide or Amiodarone are safer drug choices, and cardioversion is indicated if the patient becomes unstable.

Question 4

1. Calcium chloride 1 gram IV.
2. Sodium bicarbonate 1 mEq/kg IV.
3. Glucagon 3-10 mg IV. (correct answer)
4. A second dose of Atropine 1 mg IV.

Explanation: The patient presents with signs of a beta-blocker overdose, which is refractory to atropine. Glucagon is the specific antidote for beta-blocker toxicity. It increases intracellular cAMP through a non-adrenergic pathway, leading to increased heart rate and contractility. Calcium chloride is for calcium channel blocker overdose, and sodium bicarbonate is for tricyclic antidepressant overdose.

Question 5

1. Administer Atropine 1 mg IV push.
2. Initiate transcutaneous pacing immediately. (correct answer)
3. Begin a dopamine infusion at 5 mcg/kg/min.
4. Administer a 500 mL normal saline bolus.

Explanation: The patient is in unstable bradycardia due to a third-degree AV block. Atropine is unlikely to be effective in high-degree blocks as its mechanism is at the AV node, which is already completely blocked. Transcutaneous pacing is the most reliable and immediate intervention to increase the heart rate and improve perfusion in this scenario. Dopamine or epinephrine infusions are second-line treatments if pacing is unavailable or ineffective.

Question 6

1. The medication will cause significant but temporary pain at the IV site.
2. She may experience a brief, unpleasant sensation such as flushing or chest pressure. (correct answer)
3. The medication has a high risk of causing an allergic reaction, so she should report itching.
4. She will need to hold her breath for at least 15 seconds after the medication is given.

Explanation: Adenosine has a very short half-life and causes a transient block at the AV node, which feels unpleasant to the patient. Common side effects include flushing, shortness of breath, chest pressure, or a sense of impending doom. Warning the patient about these expected, brief side effects is a crucial part of patient care, improving their cooperation and reducing anxiety.

Question 7

1. Amiodarone 150 mg IV infused over 10 minutes. (correct answer)
2. Diltiazem 0.25 mg/kg slow IV push.
3. Adenosine 6 mg rapid IV push.
4. Metoprolol 5 mg slow IV push over 2 minutes.

Explanation: This patient presents with stable, regular, monomorphic wide-complex tachycardia, which should be presumed to be ventricular tachycardia. The first-line treatment is an antiarrhythmic infusion. Amiodarone 150 mg over 10 minutes is a primary agent. Diltiazem and Metoprolol (AV nodal blockers) are contraindicated as they can cause hemodynamic collapse if the rhythm is VT. Adenosine can be considered for diagnosis but an antiarrhythmic is preferred for treatment.

Question 8

1. Place a magnet over the pacemaker to put it in an asynchronous mode.
2. Administer Atropine 1 mg IV to increase the patient's intrinsic rate.
3. Administer a fluid bolus to treat hypotension while transporting.
4. Apply transcutaneous pacer pads and initiate external pacing. (correct answer)

Explanation: When you encounter a pacemaker malfunction scenario, you need to quickly assess whether the device is sensing, capturing, or both. This patient presents with failure to capture - you can see pacemaker spikes on the monitor, but they're not consistently followed by QRS complexes, meaning the electrical impulse isn't strong enough to stimulate the myocardium. The correct management is D) Apply transcutaneous pacer pads and initiate external pacing. Since the permanent pacemaker is failing to capture and the patient is symptomatic with hypotension and dizziness from his bradycardia (intrinsic rate of 35), he needs immediate electrical pacing. Transcutaneous pacing can provide the higher energy needed to achieve capture when the internal pacemaker cannot. Here's why the other options are inappropriate: A) Placing a magnet over the pacemaker puts it in asynchronous mode but doesn't solve the fundamental problem - the pacemaker still can't capture the myocardium effectively. B) Atropine 1 mg IV won't help because atropine increases intrinsic heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation, but this patient's bradycardia is due to pacemaker failure, not vagal tone. The pacemaker will continue firing inappropriately regardless of any increase in intrinsic rate. C) A fluid bolus addresses hypotension but ignores the underlying cause - inadequate cardiac output from severe bradycardia due to pacemaker malfunction. Key takeaway: In pacemaker failure with hemodynamic compromise, your priority is restoring effective pacing. Look for capture failure (spikes without QRS) and be ready to initiate transcutaneous pacing immediately rather than trying indirect approaches.

Question 9

1. Administer a 12 mg dose of adenosine.
2. Administer diltiazem 0.25 mg/kg IV.
3. Begin an amiodarone infusion of 150 mg over 10 minutes.
4. Perform synchronized cardioversion at 50-100 J. (correct answer)

Explanation: When you encounter an unstable patient with a narrow-complex tachycardia that hasn't responded to initial treatments, you must quickly escalate to electrical cardioversion. This scenario tests your understanding of the ACLS tachycardia algorithm and when to prioritize immediate rhythm conversion over additional medications. The correct answer is D because this patient shows clear signs of hemodynamic instability: hypotension (85/50), diaphoresis, and anxiety with a heart rate of 160. When vagal maneuvers and adenosine fail in an unstable narrow-complex tachycardia, synchronized cardioversion is the next intervention. The energy dose of 50-100 J is appropriate for the initial attempt at cardioverting supraventricular tachycardia. Option A is incorrect because a second dose of adenosine (12 mg) can be considered, but only in stable patients. This patient's instability demands immediate electrical intervention rather than another medication trial. Option B is wrong because diltiazem is contraindicated in unstable patients. Calcium channel blockers can worsen hypotension and should only be used in stable narrow-complex tachycardias after adenosine fails. Option C is incorrect because amiodarone is primarily used for wide-complex tachycardias or atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response. It's not the first-line choice for unstable narrow-complex tachycardia, and the infusion time delays definitive treatment. Remember: In ACLS, hemodynamic instability always trumps medication trials. When you see hypotension, altered mental status, chest pain, or pulmonary edema with any tachycardia, think electricity first, especially after initial interventions fail.

Question 10

1. The pacing rate is set too low to provide adequate cardiac output.
2. The patient is experiencing significant pain from the pacer.
3. There is electrical capture without effective mechanical capture. (correct answer)
4. The pacer pads are incorrectly positioned, causing diaphragmatic pacing.

Explanation: Effective pacing requires both electrical capture (a QRS complex following each pacer spike) and mechanical capture (a corresponding palpable pulse). This patient has electrical capture visible on the monitor, but her persistent hypotension suggests the heart is not contracting effectively with each paced beat. The paramedic must confirm mechanical capture by palpating for a pulse (e.g., carotid or femoral) that corresponds with the paced rhythm.

Question 11

1. Initiate immediate transcutaneous pacing. (correct answer)
2. Begin an epinephrine infusion at 2-10 mcg/min.
3. Administer a second 1 mg dose of Atropine.
4. Begin a dopamine infusion at 5-10 mcg/kg/min.

Explanation: When you encounter severe bradycardia with hemodynamic compromise, you need to quickly assess whether the rhythm will respond to atropine and have a backup plan ready. This patient presents with classic signs of cardiogenic shock from symptomatic bradycardia: hypotension, altered mental status, and inadequate perfusion. A) Transcutaneous pacing is correct because this patient has failed first-line atropine therapy and needs immediate heart rate support. With a junctional escape rhythm at 30 bpm causing hemodynamic instability, external pacing provides the fastest way to restore adequate cardiac output. The patient's unresponsive state and severe hypotension indicate he cannot wait for medication infusions to take effect. B) Epinephrine infusion would be a reasonable second-line choice, but it takes several minutes to prepare and titrate to effect. In this critically unstable patient, pacing provides more immediate and reliable heart rate control. C) A second atropine dose is inappropriate because junctional rhythms often don't respond well to atropine, and you've already demonstrated lack of response. Additional atropine could potentially worsen the situation by increasing myocardial oxygen demand without improving rate. D) Dopamine infusion shares the same limitation as epinephrine—it takes time to prepare and titrate. While dopamine has both chronotropic and inotropic effects, this patient needs immediate rate correction that only pacing can reliably provide. Key strategy: In symptomatic bradycardia, if atropine fails and the patient is hemodynamically unstable, move immediately to transcutaneous pacing. Don't delay with additional medications when electrical therapy is available and indicated.

Question 12

1. Administer Diltiazem to control the ventricular rate.
2. Focus on treating the underlying respiratory compromise. (correct answer)
3. Perform synchronized cardioversion due to the rapid rate.
4. Administer Amiodarone to attempt chemical conversion.

Explanation: The patient's rhythm is multifocal atrial tachycardia (MAT), characterized by a rate >100, irregularity, and at least 3 different P-wave morphologies. MAT is most commonly caused by severe pulmonary disease and hypoxia. The primary treatment is to correct the underlying cause, which in this case is the COPD exacerbation. Management should focus on oxygen, bronchodilators, and other respiratory support. The arrhythmia often resolves as the respiratory status improves.

Question 13

1. Administer Diltiazem 0.25 mg/kg IV to control the rate.
2. Perform immediate synchronized cardioversion. (correct answer)
3. Administer Amiodarone 150 mg over 10 minutes.
4. Attempt vagal maneuvers by having the patient bear down.

Explanation: The patient is in atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response and is hemodynamically unstable, as evidenced by hypotension and altered mental status. For any unstable tachycardia, the immediate treatment is synchronized cardioversion. Pharmacological interventions like Diltiazem are contraindicated in hypotensive patients, and Amiodarone would be too slow to act. Vagal maneuvers are inappropriate for an unstable patient.

Question 14

1. Amiodarone 150 mg IV over 10 minutes.
2. Lidocaine 1.5 mg/kg IV push.
3. Magnesium sulfate 2 grams IV over 5-10 minutes. (correct answer)
4. Procainamide 20-50 mg/min IV infusion.

Explanation: The rhythm described is Torsades de Pointes (TdP), a specific type of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia often associated with a long QT interval, electrolyte abnormalities (like hypomagnesemia, common in alcoholism), and malnutrition. The first-line pharmacological treatment for TdP, regardless of the patient's serum magnesium level, is magnesium sulfate. Antiarrhythmics like Amiodarone and Procainamide can further prolong the QT interval and worsen the arrhythmia.

Question 15

1. The underlying rhythm is atrial flutter, which was transiently unmasked by the adenosine. (correct answer)
2. The patient has an accessory pathway and requires a different antiarrhythmic.
3. The IV was inadequate and the full dose of adenosine did not reach the heart.
4. The dose of adenosine was insufficient and a 12 mg dose should be given immediately.

Explanation: When you encounter a narrow-complex tachycardia that temporarily responds to adenosine by revealing an underlying rhythm, you're witnessing adenosine's diagnostic power. Adenosine blocks AV conduction for several seconds, allowing you to see what's happening in the atria without ventricular interference. The key finding here is the "sawtooth pattern" P-waves at 300/min that became visible when the AV node was temporarily blocked. This is the classic ECG signature of atrial flutter. The original ventricular rate of 180/min represents 2:1 conduction (300 ÷ 2 = 150), and the post-adenosine rate of 150/min suggests variable conduction has been established. This textbook response confirms that answer A is correct - adenosine unmasked underlying atrial flutter. Answer B is wrong because accessory pathways typically involve wide-complex tachycardias or very rapid rates (>250/min), and the sawtooth pattern specifically indicates atrial flutter, not bypass tract conduction. Answer C misunderstands the response - the rhythm did slow and revealed P-waves, proving the adenosine reached the heart and worked as expected. Answer D assumes the goal was rhythm conversion, but adenosine rarely converts atrial flutter. The 6mg dose accomplished its diagnostic purpose by revealing the underlying rhythm. NREMT strategy: Remember that adenosine serves two roles - therapeutic (for AVNRT/AVRT) and diagnostic (to unmask atrial rhythms). When adenosine reveals sawtooth P-waves, think atrial flutter immediately. The temporary AV block is working correctly, not indicating treatment failure.

Question 16

1. Begin chest compressions immediately due to the heart rate.
2. Administer Epinephrine 0.01 mg/kg IV.
3. Administer Atropine 0.02 mg/kg IV to increase the heart rate.
4. Provide effective bag-mask ventilations with 100% oxygen. (correct answer)

Explanation: In pediatric emergencies, remember that bradycardia in children is almost always secondary to hypoxia, not a primary cardiac rhythm problem. When you see severe bradycardia combined with respiratory distress and low oxygen saturation, think "oxygenation first." The correct answer is D because this child's bradycardia stems directly from severe hypoxia following the choking episode. Despite obstruction removal, the child shows signs of respiratory failure: extremely slow breathing (RR 6), profound hypoxia (SpO2 65%), and secondary bradycardia. Effective ventilation with high-flow oxygen will rapidly improve oxygenation, which should resolve the bradycardia as the heart responds to better oxygen delivery. Option A is wrong because while a heart rate of 50 in a 2-year-old is concerning, you don't begin compressions until the heart rate drops below 60 and the child shows signs of poor perfusion despite adequate oxygenation and ventilation. You haven't addressed the underlying hypoxia yet. Option B is incorrect because epinephrine is indicated for bradycardia only after you've provided adequate ventilation and oxygenation. The dosing is also wrong - the correct dose is 0.01 mg/kg of 1:10,000 solution IV/IO. Option C is wrong because atropine is rarely used in pediatric bradycardia and is contraindicated when hypoxia is the underlying cause. The correct atropine dose would be 0.02 mg/kg, but it won't address the root problem. Remember: "Hypoxia first, drugs second" in pediatric bradycardia. Always optimize oxygenation and ventilation before considering medications or compressions.

Question 17

1. Amiodarone
2. Digoxin
3. Diltiazem (correct answer)
4. Magnesium Sulfate

Explanation: Calcium channel blockers, such as Diltiazem, have negative inotropic effects, meaning they decrease myocardial contractility. In a patient with severe systolic heart failure (evidenced by the low ejection fraction), administering Diltiazem can worsen heart failure and potentially lead to cardiogenic shock. Amiodarone and Digoxin are generally considered safer options for rate control in this population.

Question 18

1. Dopamine infusion at 5 mcg/kg/min.
2. Atropine 1 mg IV push. (correct answer)
3. Epinephrine push-dose pressor, 1 mL every 1-5 minutes.
4. Norepinephrine infusion at 0.1 mcg/kg/min.

Explanation: The patient is experiencing symptomatic bradycardia, as indicated by her hypotension and signs of poor perfusion. According to the ACLS bradycardia algorithm, the first-line drug is Atropine. The current recommended dose is 1 mg IV push, repeated every 3-5 minutes to a maximum of 3 mg. Dopamine or epinephrine infusions are second-line treatments if atropine is ineffective.

Question 19

1. Obtain a 12-lead ECG and transport rapidly without further medication.
2. Administer a Lidocaine bolus of 1.5 mg/kg followed by an infusion.
3. Initiate an Amiodarone maintenance infusion of 1 mg/min. (correct answer)
4. Administer Metoprolol 5 mg IV to suppress ventricular ectopy.

Explanation: After successful cardioversion of ventricular tachycardia, an antiarrhythmic infusion should be started to prevent recurrence. Amiodarone is a first-line agent for this purpose. The standard maintenance infusion is 1 mg/min for the first 6 hours following a loading dose (which would have been given prior to cardioversion if the patient was stable, or can be given now if not previously administered). Transporting without an infusion risks recurrence of the life-threatening arrhythmia.

Question 20

1. It can induce a paradoxical bradycardia if the dose is too low.
2. It may increase myocardial oxygen demand and worsen ischemia. (correct answer)
3. It is often ineffective for bradycardias associated with inferior wall MI.
4. It can precipitate ventricular fibrillation in this patient population.

Explanation: Atropine increases the heart rate by blocking vagal influence. This increase in heart rate also increases myocardial oxygen consumption. In a patient with an active MI, this increased oxygen demand can worsen the supply/demand mismatch, potentially extending the size of the infarction. While it may be necessary for hemodynamic stability, this potential harm must be considered.