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Nremt Aemt Level Quiz

Nremt Aemt Level Quiz: Endocrine And Metabolic Emergencies

Practice Endocrine And Metabolic Emergencies in Nremt Aemt Level with focused quiz questions that help you check what you know, review explanations, and build confidence with test-style prompts.

Question 1 / 20

0 of 20 answered

A 6-year-old female weighing 20 kg presents with lethargy, deep and rapid breathing, and a fruity odor on her breath. Parents report increased thirst and urination for the past week. Her blood glucose is 450 mg/dL. Vital signs include a BP of 80/50 mmHg and a heart rate of 140 beats/min.

After establishing IV access, what is the most appropriate initial fluid bolus for this child in suspected DKA?

Select an answer to continue

What this quiz covers

This quiz focuses on Endocrine And Metabolic Emergencies, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for Nremt Aemt Level.

How to use this quiz

Try each quiz question before looking at the correct answer. Use the explanations to review missed ideas, then come back to similar questions until the pattern feels familiar.

All questions

Question 1

A 6-year-old female weighing 20 kg presents with lethargy, deep and rapid breathing, and a fruity odor on her breath. Parents report increased thirst and urination for the past week. Her blood glucose is 450 mg/dL. Vital signs include a BP of 80/50 mmHg and a heart rate of 140 beats/min.

After establishing IV access, what is the most appropriate initial fluid bolus for this child in suspected DKA?

  1. A 100 mL bolus of 0.9% Sodium Chloride.
  2. A 400 mL bolus of 0.9% Sodium Chloride. (correct answer)
  3. A 1000 mL bolus of Lactated Ringer's solution.
  4. A 400 mL bolus of 5% Dextrose in Normal Saline.

Explanation: The standard initial fluid bolus for a pediatric patient in hypovolemic shock, including from DKA, is 20 mL/kg of an isotonic crystalloid. For a 20 kg child, this calculates to 20 mL/kg * 20 kg = 400 mL. Dextrose-containing fluids are contraindicated for the initial bolus in a hyperglycemic patient.

Question 2

A 34-year-old female presents with extreme agitation, confusion, and palpitations. Her skin is hot and profusely diaphoretic. Vital signs are BP 160/90 mmHg, HR 170 beats/min (sinus tachycardia), RR 28 breaths/min, and Temp 104°F (40°C). Her family states she has a 'thyroid problem' and recently stopped taking her medication.

This patient's presentation is most consistent with a thyroid storm. What is the most important prehospital management strategy?

  1. Administer a fluid challenge to treat presumed dehydration.
  2. Request an ALS intercept for sedation due to extreme agitation.
  3. Provide aggressive cooling measures and supportive care. (correct answer)
  4. Administer 25g of D50 to provide metabolic substrate for the heart.

Explanation: Thyroid storm is a life-threatening hypermetabolic state. The AEMT's primary role is supportive care, focusing on managing immediate life-threats. Severe hyperthermia is a major cause of mortality and morbidity, making aggressive cooling measures (e.g., cold packs to axilla/groin, removing clothing) a top priority alongside oxygen and transport.

Question 3

A 24-year-old male with a history of type 1 diabetes reports two days of vomiting and polyuria. He is lethargic but responds to verbal stimuli. Vital signs are BP 90/60 mmHg, HR 128 beats/min, RR 32 breaths/min and deep, and SpO2 95% on room air. His lungs are clear, skin is warm and dry, and his breath has a distinct fruity odor. A blood glucose meter simply reads 'HIGH'.

Which of the following clinical findings is most indicative of Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) rather than a Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS)?

  1. The presence of profound dehydration and tachycardia.
  2. The patient's altered mental status and confusion.
  3. The deep, rapid (Kussmaul) respiratory pattern. (correct answer)
  4. An extremely high blood glucose level exceeding 600 mg/dL.

Explanation: Kussmaul respirations are a specific compensatory mechanism for the metabolic acidosis caused by ketone production, which is the hallmark of DKA. While dehydration, altered mental status, and hyperglycemia are present in both DKA and HHS, the profound acidosis driving this respiratory pattern is unique to DKA.

Question 4

You are called to a 55-year-old male who is diaphoretic, confused, and combative. His wife states he is a type 2 diabetic and may have inadvertently taken too much insulin. Vital signs are stable. You successfully establish an 18-gauge IV in his antecubital fossa, and a blood glucose reading is 38 mg/dL.

What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

  1. Administer 1 mg of glucagon intramuscularly into the deltoid.
  2. Administer 25 grams of Dextrose 50% via slow IV push. (correct answer)
  3. Initiate a 1 L bolus of Lactated Ringer's solution to hydrate.
  4. Provide oral glucose paste between the patient's cheek and gum.

Explanation: For an adult patient with severe hypoglycemia (BGL < 60 mg/dL) and established IV access, the standard of care is the administration of 25 grams of 50% Dextrose. Glucagon is a second-line treatment when IV access is unavailable. Oral glucose is contraindicated due to the patient's combativeness and risk of aspiration.

Question 5

You are managing a 28-year-old male in severe DKA. He is breathing at 36 times per minute with very deep, sighing respirations. His SpO2 is 98% on room air. He is anxious and states he 'can't catch his breath.'

What is the most appropriate way to manage this patient's respiratory status?

  1. Administer oxygen via a non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min. (correct answer)
  2. Coach the patient to slow his breathing to prevent respiratory muscle fatigue.
  3. Assist his ventilations with a BVM to ensure adequate tidal volume.
  4. Request an ALS intercept for the administration of a sedative.

Explanation: When you encounter a patient in severe diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) with rapid, deep respirations, you're witnessing Kussmaul breathing—the body's compensatory mechanism to eliminate excess CO₂ and counteract metabolic acidosis. Understanding this physiological response is crucial for proper respiratory management. The patient's SpO₂ of 98% indicates adequate oxygenation, but his complaint of "can't catch his breath" reflects the metabolic drive forcing him to breathe rapidly and deeply. This isn't a ventilation problem—it's a compensation mechanism that shouldn't be interfered with. Answer A is correct because providing supplemental oxygen ensures optimal oxygen delivery while allowing the body's natural compensation to continue. Even though the SpO₂ appears adequate, the increased metabolic demands and stress of DKA benefit from supplemental oxygen support. Answer B is wrong because coaching the patient to slow his breathing would interfere with essential metabolic compensation, potentially worsening acidosis. Answer C is incorrect because assisting ventilations with a BVM would disrupt the patient's natural respiratory pattern and could lead to CO₂ retention, making the acidosis worse. The patient doesn't have inadequate tidal volume—he has compensatory hyperventilation. Answer D is inappropriate because sedation would suppress the respiratory drive needed for compensation and could be dangerous in DKA. Remember: In metabolic acidosis with Kussmaul breathing, support oxygenation but never interfere with the compensatory hyperventilation. The breathing pattern looks distressing but is physiologically necessary.

Question 6

You are called for a 40-year-old known diabetic with an altered mental status. You find the patient confused and mumbling incoherently. The skin is warm and dry, and you note a rapid, thready pulse. The patient's breathing is deep and rapid.

Based on these initial findings, which field diagnosis is more likely, and what assessment confirms it?

  1. Hyperglycemic crisis (DKA); confirmed by obtaining a blood glucose reading. (correct answer)
  2. Hypoglycemia; confirmed by observing pale, cool, diaphoretic skin.
  3. Hypoglycemia; confirmed by a rapid drop in blood pressure upon standing.
  4. Hyperglycemic crisis (DKA); confirmed by the presence of a slow, bounding pulse.

Explanation: When assessing diabetic emergencies, you need to systematically evaluate the patient's presentation to distinguish between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia. The key lies in recognizing the classic symptom patterns and knowing which assessment tool definitively confirms your suspicions. This patient presents with altered mental status, warm dry skin, rapid thready pulse, and deep rapid breathing (Kussmaul respirations). These findings strongly suggest hyperglycemic crisis, specifically diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The warm, dry skin indicates dehydration from osmotic diuresis, while the deep, rapid breathing represents the body's attempt to blow off excess CO₂ to compensate for metabolic acidosis. Answer A correctly identifies DKA and the proper confirmatory test. A blood glucose reading will reveal significantly elevated glucose levels (typically >250 mg/dL), confirming hyperglycemic crisis. Answer B incorrectly suggests hypoglycemia and describes classic hypoglycemic skin findings (pale, cool, diaphoretic), which contradict this patient's warm, dry skin. Answer C also incorrectly identifies hypoglycemia and mentions orthostatic vital signs, which aren't relevant to confirming glucose status. Answer D correctly identifies DKA but describes a "slow, bounding pulse," when hyperglycemic patients typically present with rapid, thready pulses due to dehydration and compensatory tachycardia. Remember the "4 Ts" for distinguishing diabetic emergencies: hypoglycemia presents with Tremors, Tachycardia, Tingling, and Tough (agitated) behavior with diaphoretic skin, while hyperglycemia shows warm/dry skin with deep respirations. Always confirm with blood glucose measurement.

Question 7

A 68-year-old female who takes daily prednisone for rheumatoid arthritis has had a fever and cough for three days. She is now lethargic with a BP of 70/palpable, a heart rate of 130, and a temperature of 102.5°F. Her blood glucose is 60 mg/dL.

This patient's refractory hypotension is most likely caused by a combination of sepsis and which underlying endocrine emergency?

  1. Myxedema coma due to her altered mental status.
  2. Diabetic ketoacidosis due to the physiologic stress of infection.
  3. Thyroid storm due to the high fever and tachycardia.
  4. Adrenal crisis secondary to chronic steroid use. (correct answer)

Explanation: When you encounter a patient with refractory hypotension and chronic steroid use, think systematically about how long-term corticosteroids affect the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis and what happens during physiologic stress. This patient presents with classic adrenal crisis triggered by sepsis. Chronic prednisone use suppresses the HPA axis, causing the adrenal glands to atrophy and stop producing adequate cortisol. During stress like infection, the body normally increases cortisol production 5-10 fold to maintain vascular tone and blood pressure. However, her suppressed adrenals cannot respond appropriately, leading to profound hypotension that doesn't respond to standard treatments. The hypoglycemia (60 mg/dL) further supports this diagnosis, as cortisol is essential for maintaining blood glucose during stress. Looking at the distractors: A) Myxedema coma typically presents with bradycardia, hypothermia, and profound altered mental status - opposite of this patient's tachycardia and fever. B) Diabetic ketoacidosis would cause hyperglycemia, not the hypoglycemia seen here, and there's no indication she's diabetic. C) Thyroid storm would show extreme hyperthermia (often >104°F), severe agitation, and wouldn't explain the hypoglycemia or steroid connection. Remember this key pattern: any patient on chronic steroids (prednisone, prednisolone, dexamethasone) who develops shock during illness should trigger immediate suspicion for adrenal crisis. These patients need high-dose hydrocortisone along with standard sepsis management. The combination of refractory hypotension, hypoglycemia, and chronic steroid use is a classic NREMT scenario testing adrenal insufficiency recognition.

Question 8

A 4-year-old diabetic male is found lethargic and pale. He is breathing adequately but will not follow commands. His blood glucose level is 30 mg/dL. You have established an IV line. The child weighs 18 kg.

Which of the following represents the correct medication and dose to administer for this patient?

  1. 25 grams of 50% Dextrose (D50) IV push.
  2. 1 mg of Glucagon intramuscularly.
  3. 90 mL of 10% Dextrose (D10) IV over several minutes. (correct answer)
  4. 36 mL of 5% Dextrose (D5W) IV push.

Explanation: The recommended dose for pediatric hypoglycemia is 0.5 g/kg of dextrose. For an 18 kg child, this is 9 grams. D50 is too hyperosmolar for children. The correct dose using D10 (which is 10g/100mL or 0.1g/mL) is 9g / 0.1g/mL = 90 mL. This should be administered slowly.

Question 9

While administering 50% Dextrose through a 20-gauge IV in the back of the hand of a confused, hypoglycemic patient, you notice sudden swelling and redness at the site. The patient pulls his hand away, complaining of severe burning pain.

What is your immediate priority in this situation?

  1. Continue the infusion but at a much slower rate to minimize pain.
  2. Stop the infusion, disconnect the tubing, and apply a warm compress. (correct answer)
  3. Rapidly complete the administration of the full dose to treat the hypoglycemia.
  4. Flush the IV line with 10 mL of normal saline to ensure patency.

Explanation: D50 is extremely hypertonic and can cause severe tissue necrosis if it extravasates (leaks into the surrounding tissue). The immediate priority is to stop the infusion to prevent further damage. Flushing the line or continuing the infusion would worsen the injury. Management after stopping the infusion should be guided by local protocol and medical control.

Question 10

An 80-year-old male presents with an acute onset of left-sided weakness and slurred speech. His wife is certain he is having a stroke. He has a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes managed with oral medications.

Before initiating a stroke alert and transporting to a stroke center, which assessment is essential for the AEMT to perform?

  1. A 12-lead ECG to rule out atrial fibrillation as a cause.
  2. A blood glucose analysis to rule out hypoglycemia. (correct answer)
  3. A detailed cranial nerve exam to localize the deficit.
  4. A blood pressure measurement in both arms to check for dissection.

Explanation: Hypoglycemia is a well-known 'stroke mimic' and can present with focal neurological deficits such as unilateral weakness and slurred speech. It is imperative to check a blood glucose level on every patient with suspected stroke, as the treatment for hypoglycemia is simple and effective, and misdiagnosing it as a stroke can lead to significant delays in appropriate care.

Question 11

You administer 1 mg of IM glucagon to a severely hypoglycemic 50-year-old male with a history of type 1 diabetes and chronic liver disease due to alcoholism. After 15 minutes, his mental status has not improved and his blood glucose level remains at 40 mg/dL.

What is the most likely reason for the ineffectiveness of the glucagon?

  1. The patient's liver has insufficient glycogen stores to release glucose. (correct answer)
  2. The intramuscular route provides unreliable absorption in this patient.
  3. The patient has likely developed a pharmacological tolerance to glucagon.
  4. The standard 1 mg dose is insufficient and should be repeated immediately.

Explanation: Glucagon works by stimulating the liver to break down its stored glycogen into glucose (glycogenolysis). In patients with depleted glycogen stores, such as those with chronic alcoholism, malnutrition, or liver disease, glucagon will be ineffective because there is no glucose to release.

Question 12

You administered 1 mg of IM glucagon to an unconscious 22-year-old patient 10 minutes ago. The patient is now beginning to moan and follow simple commands. Her BGL has risen from 32 mg/dL to 88 mg/dL.

What is the most appropriate next action for the AEMT to take?

  1. Administer a second dose of glucagon to prevent a relapse into hypoglycemia.
  2. Prepare to administer IV dextrose as the effects of glucagon are unreliable.
  3. Immediately transport with no further intervention since she is improving.
  4. Provide a source of oral carbohydrates as soon as she can safely swallow. (correct answer)

Explanation: When managing hypoglycemia recovery, your priority shifts from emergency correction to preventing rebound hypoglycemia. This patient demonstrates successful glucagon response with improved mental status and blood glucose rising from critically low (32 mg/dL) to normal range (88 mg/dL). The correct next step is D) Provide oral carbohydrates once she can safely swallow. Glucagon works by stimulating the liver to release stored glucose (glycogen), but this effect is temporary—typically lasting 60-90 minutes. Without additional glucose intake, blood sugar will likely drop again as the glucagon effect wears off. Since the patient is now responsive and following commands, she should soon be able to safely consume oral carbohydrates, which provide sustained glucose elevation. A) is incorrect because additional glucagon won't extend the duration of glucose elevation and may cause nausea/vomiting, complicating oral intake later. B) is wrong because glucagon has clearly worked effectively here—her glucose rose 56 mg/dL and mental status improved significantly. IV dextrose isn't indicated when oral intake will soon be possible. C) is inappropriate because while she's improving, failing to provide sustained carbohydrates sets her up for recurrent hypoglycemia during transport. Key strategy: Remember that successful hypoglycemia treatment has two phases—emergency correction (IV dextrose or IM glucagon) followed by sustained glucose support (oral carbohydrates). Always plan the bridge between emergency intervention and long-term stability, especially since glucagon's effects are temporary.

Question 13

You respond to a 48-year-old male with a history of chronic alcoholism who complains of severe abdominal pain, nausea, and weakness. He states he has been on a 3-day drinking binge with no food intake. He is tachycardic and tachypneic. His blood glucose level is 90 mg/dL.

This patient's presentation is highly suggestive of alcoholic ketoacidosis (AKA). Which intervention is most appropriate?

  1. Administer an antiemetic and encourage slow oral hydration with water.
  2. Establish IV access and administer a 500 mL bolus of 0.9% Sodium Chloride.
  3. Withhold all fluids and glucose until a definitive diagnosis can be made at the hospital.
  4. Establish IV access and administer an IV fluid bolus containing dextrose. (correct answer)

Explanation: Alcoholic ketoacidosis is a 'starvation ketosis' where the lack of glucose intake combined with alcohol's metabolic effects leads to ketone production. The definitive treatment is to provide both IV fluids for dehydration and dextrose to give the body an energy source other than fats, which stops the production of ketones. Administering fluids without dextrose is incomplete treatment.

Question 14

A 19-year-old female with a known history of type 1 diabetes is found unconscious by her roommate. She is breathing shallowly at 8 breaths/min. Her skin is pale, cool, and diaphoretic. Her blood glucose level is 25 mg/dL. You are unable to establish IV access after two attempts.

Given the patient's presentation and inability to secure IV access, what is the most appropriate action?

  1. Continue attempts to establish IV access while transporting rapidly.
  2. Place a supraglottic airway and begin ventilating with a BVM.
  3. Administer 1 mg of glucagon via the intramuscular route. (correct answer)
  4. Apply high-flow oxygen and place the patient in the recovery position.

Explanation: When IV access cannot be obtained in a timely manner for a severely hypoglycemic and unconscious patient, the administration of intramuscular glucagon is the indicated intervention. While airway and breathing support are important, reversing the underlying cause of the respiratory depression (hypoglycemia) is the priority.

Question 15

A 70-year-old female with diabetes feels 'shaky and weak.' She is awake and conversing with you, though she seems slightly confused. Her blood glucose level is 55 mg/dL.

Which finding would be a contraindication to the administration of oral glucose paste for this patient?

  1. The patient states she just ate a large meal an hour ago.
  2. The patient's prescribed medication is metformin, not insulin.
  3. The patient has a history of a previous stroke without residual deficits.
  4. The patient has a weak cough and is drowsy. (correct answer)

Explanation: When evaluating a hypoglycemic patient for oral glucose administration, you must assess their ability to safely swallow and protect their airway. This patient presents with classic hypoglycemic symptoms and a dangerously low blood glucose of 55 mg/dL, but the key question is whether oral glucose is the appropriate route. The correct answer is D because a weak cough combined with drowsiness indicates compromised airway protection. A weak cough suggests the patient cannot effectively clear secretions or foreign material from their airway. When combined with altered mental status (drowsiness), this creates a significant aspiration risk. Oral glucose paste could be aspirated into the lungs, potentially causing aspiration pneumonia or airway obstruction. Option A is incorrect because recent food intake doesn't contraindicate oral glucose - the patient is clearly hypoglycemic despite eating, indicating the need for immediate glucose replacement. Option B is wrong because the type of diabetes medication doesn't affect oral glucose administration decisions; hypoglycemia can occur with various diabetes medications, not just insulin. Option C is incorrect because a previous stroke without current deficits doesn't automatically contraindicate oral glucose unless there are present swallowing difficulties. Remember this key principle: oral glucose requires an alert patient with intact swallowing reflexes and adequate airway protection. Always assess mental status, gag reflex, and ability to swallow before giving anything orally to a hypoglycemic patient. When in doubt about airway safety, choose IV dextrose or glucagon instead.

Question 16

A 30-year-old patient in DKA is hypotensive and tachycardic with poor skin turgor. You have established a large-bore IV. Medical direction has ordered you to begin fluid resuscitation.

Which IV fluid is most appropriate for this patient's initial resuscitation?

  1. 5% Dextrose in Water (D5W) to prevent cerebral edema.
  2. 0.9% Sodium Chloride (Normal Saline) to correct hypovolemia. (correct answer)
  3. Lactated Ringer's solution because it will not cause hyperchloremia.
  4. 0.45% Sodium Chloride (Half-Normal Saline) to correct hyperosmolarity.

Explanation: The primary goal in the initial prehospital management of DKA is to correct profound hypovolemia and improve perfusion. The standard of care is resuscitation with an isotonic crystalloid, with 0.9% Sodium Chloride being the most common and appropriate choice. Dextrose-containing and hypotonic fluids are contraindicated for the initial bolus.

Question 17

You are dispatched to a 62-year-old female actively seizing. Her family states she has no seizure history but is a type 2 diabetic. The generalized tonic-clonic seizure stops after about 2 minutes of your arrival, and the patient is now postictal and unresponsive to verbal commands.

After ensuring airway patency and providing supplemental oxygen, what is the AEMT's highest priority action?

  1. Obtain a detailed history of her diabetes medications from the family.
  2. Establish IV access in case she begins seizing again.
  3. Obtain a blood glucose level as soon as it is safe to do so. (correct answer)
  4. Immobilize the patient on a long spine board in case of traumatic injury.

Explanation: In any patient with an altered mental status, including a postictal state, hypoglycemia must be considered as a primary cause, especially with a history of diabetes. Checking the blood glucose level is a critical and high-priority diagnostic step because hypoglycemia is a readily reversible cause of seizures.

Question 18

An 82-year-old female from a nursing home is found unresponsive to verbal stimuli but responsive to pain. Staff reports she has had a urinary tract infection and poor oral intake for several days. Her vital signs are BP 88/50 mmHg, HR 130 beats/min, and RR 24 breaths/min and shallow. Her skin shows signs of severe dehydration with tenting. The blood glucose level is 1100 mg/dL. There is no ketone odor on her breath.

Given this patient's presentation consistent with Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS), what is the most critical initial intervention?

  1. Administer intramuscular glucagon due to her unresponsiveness.
  2. Initiate a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride via a large-bore IV. (correct answer)
  3. Apply a non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min to correct potential hypoxia.
  4. Prepare for immediate supraglottic airway placement to manage the airway.

Explanation: HHS is characterized by profound dehydration and hyperosmolarity, leading to hypovolemic shock. The most critical initial intervention is aggressive IV fluid resuscitation with an isotonic crystalloid to restore intravascular volume and improve organ perfusion. The other actions are either incorrect (glucagon) or a lower priority than circulation.

Question 19

A 45-year-old male with a history of severe asthma recently completed a course of oral prednisone. He presents with profound weakness, vomiting, and confusion. Vital signs are BP 78/42 mmHg, HR 122 beats/min, RR 22 breaths/min. His blood glucose level is 58 mg/dL and his skin is cool and clammy.

The patient's signs, symptoms, and history are most suggestive of an adrenal crisis. What is the most appropriate initial AEMT intervention?

  1. Administer an IV bolus of 0.9% Sodium Chloride and a dextrose solution. (correct answer)
  2. Administer 1 mg of glucagon IM for the hypoglycemia and transport rapidly.
  3. Place the patient in a supine position and provide high-flow oxygen only.
  4. Request an ALS intercept for immediate vasopressor administration.

Explanation: Adrenal crisis causes profound vasodilation, dehydration, and often hypoglycemia. The cornerstone of prehospital treatment is aggressive fluid resuscitation with an isotonic crystalloid to treat shock and correction of hypoglycemia with IV dextrose. Relying on glucagon or oxygen alone is insufficient.

Question 20

An 88-year-old female is found unresponsive in her cold apartment during the winter. She has a known history of hypothyroidism. She is bradycardic at 38 bpm, hypotensive at 70/40 mmHg, and has a respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min. Her skin is cool, pale, and doughy. A blood glucose level is 65 mg/dL.

This patient's condition is most likely myxedema coma. In addition to airway and ventilatory support, which intervention is most critical?

  1. Rapidly rewarm the patient using hot packs to the axilla and groin.
  2. Administer an IV bolus of 50% Dextrose for the low-normal BGL.
  3. Prevent further heat loss and initiate an IV of warmed normal saline. (correct answer)
  4. Administer a 20 mL/kg fluid bolus to rapidly correct the hypotension.

Explanation: In myxedema coma, the patient is severely hypothermic and hemodynamically unstable. The priority is passive rewarming (preventing further heat loss by covering with blankets) and cautious IV fluid administration, ideally with warmed fluids. Active rewarming with hot packs can cause peripheral vasodilation and worsen shock. Large, rapid fluid boluses can precipitate heart failure.