Bar Exam (Next Generation) Quiz: Fraud Misrepresentation And Nondisclosure

12 questions · exam conditions

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Fraud Misrepresentation And NondisclosureQuestion 1 of 12

A homeowner listed her house for sale. Before showings, she nailed a plywood panel over a large crack in the foundation, then painted the panel to match the surrounding wall. A buyer viewed the house, asked no questions about the foundation, and purchased it. After moving in, the buyer discovered the foundation crack and sought to rescind the sale for fraudulent nondisclosure.

Which of the following is the best answer?

The seller is not liable because she had no duty to disclose a latent defect in an arm's-length real estate sale.

The seller is not liable because the buyer failed to ask about the foundation or to have the house inspected.

The seller is liable because her conduct actively concealed a known material defect, making silence equivalent to an affirmative misrepresentation.

The seller is liable because a residential seller must disclose all known latent defects that materially affect value.

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Bar Exam (Next Generation) Quiz

Bar Exam (Next Generation) Quiz: Fraud Misrepresentation And Nondisclosure

Practice Fraud Misrepresentation And Nondisclosure in Bar Exam (Next Generation) with focused quiz questions that help you check what you know, review explanations, and build confidence with test-style prompts.

What this quiz covers

This quiz focuses on Fraud Misrepresentation And Nondisclosure, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for Bar Exam (Next Generation).

How to use this quiz

Try each quiz question before looking at the correct answer. Use the explanations to review missed ideas, then come back to similar questions until the pattern feels familiar.

All questions

Question 1

Which of the following is the best answer?

The seller is not liable because she had no duty to disclose a latent defect in an arm's-length real estate sale.
The seller is not liable because the buyer failed to ask about the foundation or to have the house inspected.
The seller is liable because her conduct actively concealed a known material defect, making silence equivalent to an affirmative misrepresentation. (correct answer)
The seller is liable because a residential seller must disclose all known latent defects that materially affect value.

Explanation: Whenever you see a real estate fraud question, the key is distinguishing passive silence from active concealment. In an arm's-length sale, a seller generally has no duty to disclose a latent defect, but that rule changes dramatically when the seller takes affirmative steps to hide the problem. Here, the seller didn't just stay quiet—she nailed a plywood panel over the crack and painted it to match the surrounding wall. This is an affirmative act of concealment. Because the foundation crack is a material defect affecting the home's value, her conduct makes her silence equivalent to an affirmative misrepresentation, so she is liable for fraudulent nondisclosure. The choice stating the seller is not liable because she had no duty to disclose a latent defect in an arm's-length sale states the general rule but misses the critical exception: active concealment creates a duty. The choice blaming the buyer for failing to ask or inspect is also wrong—even a buyer's lack of diligence does not excuse the seller's intentional concealment; the fraud itself caused the buyer's ignorance. Finally, the choice asserting that a residential seller must disclose all known latent defects goes too far. The common law does not impose a blanket duty to disclose every defect; rather, liability arises here specifically because of the active concealment. Remember this pattern: silence alone is not fraud, but concealment is. When a seller patches, covers, or disguises a defect, you have an actionable misrepresentation.

Question 2

A manufacturer promised a retailer that its trucks would be delivered by January 15. At the time the manufacturer made the promise, it already had accepted orders from other retailers that used its entire production capacity through February, and the manufacturer knew it had no way to meet the January 15 date. The retailer, needing trucks for a peak season, relied on the promise and placed orders with suppliers. The trucks arrived March 1. The retailer sues, claiming fraudulent misrepresentation.

Which is the best basis for the retailer's claim?

The manufacturer breached the contract, and a later breach establishes that its promise was a fraudulent misrepresentation.
The manufacturer made a false statement of existing intent, because it had no intention of performing when it made the promise. (correct answer)
A statement about future performance is always an opinion, so it cannot support a fraudulent-misrepresentation claim.
The retailer relied on the promise, and therefore any damages from the delay are recoverable in tort.

Explanation: Whenever you see a fraudulent misrepresentation question, separate two things: a broken promise (contract breach) and a lie about a present fact (tort). Here, the key is that the manufacturer promised delivery by January 15 while knowing it had already booked all capacity through February — meaning it had no intention or ability to perform when it made the promise. That is a false statement of existing intent, not just a future prediction. A statement about future performance can support fraud if the speaker misrepresents their current state of mind. So the correct answer is that the manufacturer made a false statement of existing intent because it had no intention of performing when it made the promise. Now the distractors: "The manufacturer breached the contract, and a later breach establishes that its promise was a fraudulent misrepresentation" — this confuses breach with fraud; a breach can be honest but negligent or impossible, and later nonperformance doesn't retroactively prove intent to deceive. "A statement about future performance is always an opinion, so it cannot support a fraudulent-misrepresentation claim" — that's false because an opinion about future performance can be a misrepresentation of present intent if the speaker knows they won't perform. "The retailer relied on the promise, and therefore any damages from the delay are recoverable in tort" — reliance is necessary but not sufficient; you need a false statement of material fact made with scienter, not just reliance. Your study tip: On the bar exam, always ask "What was the speaker's state of mind at the time of the statement?" If they knew they couldn't or wouldn't perform, that's fraud. If they merely later failed, that's breach.

Question 3

A buyer negotiating to purchase a used car asked the dealer whether the transmission had ever been replaced. The dealer replied, "I've had my mechanic go through it; the transmission is solid." The dealer had not had any mechanic inspect it and did not know whether the transmission was sound. In fact, the transmission had a known internal defect that would require replacement within weeks. The buyer purchased the car and later demanded rescission.

Which of the following is the best statement regarding the dealer's liability?

No liability, because "solid" is a statement of opinion and cannot be a misrepresentation.
No liability, because the buyer could have had the car inspected before purchase.
Liability, because the dealer's assertion implied that he had a factual basis for his statement, and he had none. (correct answer)
Liability, because any knowingly false statement by a seller, however minor, entitles the buyer to rescind.

Explanation: Whenever you see a question about a seller's statement during a negotiation, think about the line between opinion and misrepresentation. A statement can be actionable if it carries an implied factual basis, even if it sounds like puffery. Here, the dealer's "transmission is solid" was not a bare opinion. He backed it with "I've had my mechanic go through it," which implied he had reliable knowledge about the transmission. In fact, he had no inspection and knew nothing about its condition; the transmission had a known defect. Because his assertion carried a false implied factual basis, the buyer may rescind. That makes the liability choice correct. The "opinion" choice fails because "solid" is not mere puffery when it is anchored to a claimed inspection. The "buyer could have inspected" choice is also wrong: a buyer's opportunity to inspect does not excuse a seller's fraudulent misrepresentation. The "any knowingly false statement, however minor" choice is too broad—rescission generally requires a material misrepresentation, not every trivial statement. And there is no "no liability" here because the deception was substantial and directly induced the purchase. On exam day, when you see an opinion-or-fact question, ask: Did the speaker claim a factual basis? If so, a statement that seems subjective may still support liability.

Question 4

While negotiating the sale of a business, a seller told the buyer, "I will persuade our largest customer to sign a five-year renewal before closing." The seller knew the customer had already decided to take its business elsewhere but had not told anyone. The buyer relied on this assurance and paid an extra $200,000 for the expected renewal. The customer did not renew, and the buyer later learned what the seller had known. Which statement is most accurate?

The buyer can rescind because a promise of future conduct is a misrepresentation when the promisor had no intent to perform at the time the promise was made. (correct answer)
The buyer cannot rescind because statements of future intent are not misrepresentations; a broken promise is at most a breach of contract.
The buyer cannot rescind unless the seller's statement was reduced to a signed writing before closing.
The buyer can rescind only if the customer's departure was caused by the seller's failure to use reasonable efforts to obtain the renewal.

Explanation: Whenever you see a promise about future conduct, distinguish between a mere broken promise (a breach) and a fraudulent misrepresentation. The key is the promisor's state of mind at the moment the promise was made. Here, the seller promised to persuade the customer to renew, but he knew the customer had already decided to leave. That means the seller had no present intent to perform his promise. A statement of future intent is a misrepresentation of present fact when the promisor knows he will not or cannot perform. Because the buyer relied on this false assurance and paid an extra $200,000, the buyer can rescind the contract for fraudulent misrepresentation. The wrong answer claiming statements of future intent are never misrepresentations overlooks this critical exception: if the promisor lacked intent to perform at the time, it's actionable fraud, not just a breach. The choice requiring a signed writing confuses the Statute of Frauds with the remedy of rescission; rescission for fraud does not require a writing. The last choice, about reasonable efforts, addresses a possible breach of contract claim for failing to use best efforts, but that misses the point—the seller's lie about his present intent is the fraud, not his later failure to persuade the customer. For your exam, remember this pattern: any time a party promises a future act but secretly knows it won't happen, you have a misrepresentation of present intent, allowing rescission. Look for that "knew at the time" fact.

Question 5

A buyer contracted to purchase a warehouse after the seller stated, "The roof is structurally sound and should last another 15 years." The seller's statement was based on a ten-year-old inspection report; unknown to the seller, a recent engineering report had found severe roof rot requiring immediate replacement. The buyer did not have the report and relied on the statement. After closing, the roof collapsed. The buyer sues, seeking rescission and damages for fraudulent misrepresentation. Which statement best describes the buyer's rights?

The buyer may rescind because the statement was material and relied on, but cannot recover damages for fraudulent misrepresentation because the seller did not know it was false. (correct answer)
The buyer may recover damages for fraudulent misrepresentation because the statement was false and material, but cannot rescind because the seller was not fraudulent.
The buyer may neither rescind nor recover damages because a false statement honestly made cannot affect a contract.
The buyer may rescind and recover damages for fraudulent misrepresentation because a material false statement is actionable even if made innocently.

Explanation: When you see a misrepresentation question, your first task is to separate the two remedies: rescission (undoing the contract) and damages (money for tort). The key split is the seller's state of mind. Here, the seller honestly believed the roof was fine based on an old report, and the recent bad report was unknown to them. That means there was no scienter—no knowledge of falsity and no reckless disregard—so the buyer cannot recover damages for fraudulent misrepresentation. However, rescission is a different animal. It is available for any material false statement, even an innocent one, as long as the buyer justifiably relied on it. The roof's condition was clearly material, the buyer relied on the statement, and the roof collapsed. Therefore, the buyer can rescind but cannot get damages for fraud. Now examine the distractors. The choice saying "may recover damages for fraudulent misrepresentation because the statement was false and material, but cannot rescind because the seller was not fraudulent" flips the rule—rescission is actually the easier remedy to get, and damages require fraud. The choice saying "neither rescind nor recover damages because a false statement honestly made cannot affect a contract" is wrong because an honest false statement can affect the contract through rescission; it just doesn't support tort damages. Finally, the choice offering "rescind and recover damages for fraudulent misrepresentation because a material false statement is actionable even if made innocently" mistakenly assumes innocent misrepresentation supports tort damages—it does not; damages require knowledge or reckless disregard. Study tip: On the bar exam, always check the seller's knowledge first. If they didn't know, damages are off the table, but rescission is still on the table for materiality and reliance. Memorize that distinction.

Question 6

A homeowner who had put her house on the market discovered that a basement wall was bowing and cracked. She did not mention it to prospective buyers. Before a scheduled showing, she had a contractor cover the wall with new framing, drywall, and paneling. A potential buyer viewed the house, did not notice anything unusual, and made an offer, which the homeowner accepted. After closing, the buyer removed the paneling for renovation and found the damaged wall. Which statement is most accurate?

The buyer may not avoid because a seller has no duty to disclose a latent defect unless the buyer expressly asked about it.
The buyer may avoid the contract because covering the wall was active concealment equivalent to a misrepresentation. (correct answer)
The buyer may avoid only if the homeowner made an express statement that the wall was structurally sound.
The buyer may not avoid because the buyer could have inspected behind the paneling before closing.

Explanation: When you see a real estate sale with a hidden defect, your first question is whether the seller merely stayed silent or actively did something. The law distinguishes between silence (often permitted under caveat emptor) and affirmative concealment, which constitutes a misrepresentation. Here, the homeowner didn't just fail to mention the bowing wall; she had a contractor cover it with framing, drywall, and paneling. That is active concealment. Because she took steps to hide the defect, she created a false impression that the wall was sound, and the buyer reasonably relied on that appearance. This active concealment is the legal equivalent of a false statement, making the contract voidable by the buyer. Now consider the wrong answers. The statement that the buyer may not avoid because a seller has no duty to disclose a latent defect unless asked is a trap: it misapplies the general rule. While there is typically no duty to disclose, that rule is pierced when the seller actively conceals the problem. The choice requiring an express statement that the wall was structurally sound is also incorrect—active concealment itself serves as the misrepresentation, so no verbal assurance is needed. Finally, the suggestion that the buyer could have inspected behind the paneling fails because a buyer is not expected to dismantle the property; the defect was latent and the seller's concealment defeats any claim that the buyer's inspection was inadequate. Your study tip: on the bar exam, look for verbs like "covered," "painted over," or "disguised" – any affirmative act to hide a defect turns mere non-disclosure into fraud, and the buyer can avoid the contract.

Question 7

A seller of commercial property told a buyer that the building's HVAC system was new. The buyer had been present the previous week when a service technician told the seller that the compressor was seized and the system needed complete replacement. The buyer did not mention this and signed the contract the next day. After closing, the system failed, and the buyer sued for fraudulent misrepresentation. Which statement is most accurate?

The buyer's claim fails because statements about the condition of HVAC equipment are nonactionable sales puffery.
The buyer's claim succeeds because a known false statement is fraudulent even if the buyer did not actually believe it; actual reliance is not required for rescission.
The buyer's claim succeeds because he had no duty to investigate and could rely on the seller's express assurance.
The buyer's claim fails because reliance on a statement he knew to be false was not justified. (correct answer)

Explanation: Whenever you see a fraudulent misrepresentation question, run through the elements: a false statement of material fact, scienter (knowledge of falsity), intent to induce reliance, and—crucially—justifiable reliance by the plaintiff. Here, the buyer knew the truth because he overheard the technician say the compressor was seized and the system needed replacement. Since the buyer knew the seller's statement that the HVAC was "new" was false, his reliance on that statement was not justified. You cannot claim you were deceived into believing something you knew to be false, so the claim fails. The choice about "nonactionable sales puffery" is wrong because the condition of HVAC equipment is a specific, verifiable, material fact, not a vague boast or opinion. The choice stating the claim succeeds because "actual reliance is not required" is backwards—reliance is an essential element of fraud, and here the buyer did not actually rely on the lie because he knew the truth. Finally, the choice about having "no duty to investigate" is a trap: while buyers generally may rely on express assurances without conducting their own investigation, that rule presumes the buyer is ignorant of the truth. Actual knowledge of falsity defeats justifiable reliance, regardless of any duty to investigate. Study tip: On the bar exam, whenever the plaintiff has actual knowledge of the truth before signing or closing, look for the "justifiable reliance" element to fail. That is the classic trap in these fact patterns.

Question 8

At the initial showing of a house, a seller truthfully told a buyer that the basement had never leaked. The buyer's offer was accepted. Before closing, a heavy rainstorm caused seepage through the basement wall, and the seller had it patched. The seller did not mention this to the buyer, and the buyer did not return to the house before closing. After closing, the buyer discovered water stains and a patch. Which statement is most accurate?

The buyer cannot rescind because mere silence after a true statement does not amount to a misrepresentation; the seller had no duty to update.
The buyer cannot rescind unless he can prove the seller intended to defraud him at the time of the original statement.
The buyer can rescind because nondisclosure is equivalent to a misrepresentation when necessary to prevent a previous assertion from being misleading. (correct answer)
The buyer can rescind only if the storm damage was visible from the street and a reasonable inspection would have revealed it before closing.

Explanation: Whenever you see a fraud or misrepresentation question, ask whether one party's silence made a previously true statement misleading. Here, the seller's statement that the basement had never leaked was true at the initial showing, but before closing the basement seeped and was patched. Because the seller knew this and knew the buyer was still relying on the original "no leaks" assurance, his silence became a nondisclosure equivalent to a misrepresentation — specifically, nondisclosure is treated as a misrepresentation when necessary to prevent a previous assertion from being misleading. The buyer can rescind because he reasonably relied on that statement through closing, and the seller had a duty to correct it once it became false. The "mere silence after a true statement" option sounds plausible but misses that duty: silence is permissible only when it doesn't affirmatively mislead; here it did. The "intent to defraud at the time of the original statement" option is also wrong: fraudulent intent can arise later when the seller chooses to conceal the changed condition and collect the buyer's closing funds anyway. And the "visible from the street / reasonable inspection" option misstates the rule: unless the buyer knew or should have known, the seller cannot hide behind a inspection excuse when he had specific knowledge that his earlier assurance was no longer true. Even if the buyer could have returned, the seller's active concealment of patched seepage defeats that argument. Study tip: On contracts and real estate questions, identify whether an earlier assertion has been overtaken by later events. If so, the speaker must update the listener — otherwise silence itself can be a misrepresentation.

Question 9

A homeowner who spoke little English needed roof repairs. A contractor brought a stack of papers to the homeowner and pointed to a signature line on the last page, saying, "This is the permit application you need to sign so the city will authorize the work." The page was not a permit application; it was a personal guaranty of a $100,000 business loan taken out by the contractor. The homeowner did not read it and had no reason to know its contents; he signed. Which statement best describes the guaranty?

The guaranty is enforceable because the homeowner was negligent in failing to obtain a translation or have the document reviewed.
The guaranty is voidable by the homeowner because the contractor's fraud induced him to sign, but it is effective until avoided.
The guaranty is enforceable because a person is generally bound by his signature even if he did not read the document.
The guaranty is void because the misrepresentation concerned the character of the instrument and the homeowner had no reasonable opportunity to learn its terms. (correct answer)

Explanation: Whenever a misrepresentation affects whether a contract exists at all, distinguish fraud in the factum from fraud in inducement. Fraud in the factum occurs when one party tricks another into signing an instrument of a different character; no true assent, so the resulting contract is void. That is what happened here: the contractor told you the paper was a permit application, but it was actually a personal guaranty for a $100,000 business loan. Because you did not read it and had no reason to know its contents, you had no reasonable opportunity to learn the document's true character. The guaranty therefore never became a valid obligation; it is void. The choice saying the guaranty is enforceable because you were negligent in failing to obtain a translation or review misses the point: there is no duty to inspect a document when the other party actively misrepresents its character, especially given the language barrier. Likewise, the choice invoking the general rule that a person is bound by his signature despite not reading the document states the default rule, but this is exactly the exception for fraud in the factum. The choice saying the guaranty is voidable because fraud induced you to sign describes fraud in inducement, where fraud concerns collateral facts; here it concerned the character of the instrument, making it void, not merely voidable. Thus the fully accurate statement is that the misrepresentation concerned the character of the instrument and the homeowner had no reasonable opportunity to learn its terms.

Question 10

A seller of rural land told a buyer, based on an old survey she honestly believed accurate, that the parcel contained 40 acres. In fact, it contained 35 acres. The buyer, who planned to subdivide the property into 40 one-acre lots, relied on the acreage figure; had he known the true acreage, he would not have bought. He now seeks to rescind the contract. The seller had no knowledge of the error and had not intended to deceive.

Which of the following is the best answer regarding the buyer's remedy?

The buyer may rescind because a material misrepresentation is ground for rescission even if innocently made. (correct answer)
The buyer may rescind and recover damages because the misrepresentation was material, even without fault.
The buyer may not rescind because innocent misrepresentation does not affect the validity of a contract.
The buyer may not rescind because he should have had the property surveyed before relying on the seller's figure.

Explanation: When you see a question about misrepresentation in contract law, immediately separate two questions: (1) Can the contract be rescinded? (2) Can the buyer also get damages? Rescission is an equitable remedy that undoes the deal, and it is available for any material misrepresentation—even an innocent one. Damages, however, require fraud or negligence. Here, the seller's statement about acreage was a false assertion of fact, material because the buyer's whole subdivision plan depended on it, and the buyer actually relied on it. The seller's honesty doesn't matter for rescission. That's exactly why the correct choice—the one stating that a material misrepresentation grounds rescission even if innocently made—is right. The distractor offering rescission and damages fails because damages for innocent misrepresentation are not awarded; only rescission (or restitution) is available. The choice saying innocent misrepresentation doesn't affect validity is backwards—rescission exists precisely to cure such defects. And the suggestion that the buyer should have surveyed the land is a trap: a party may generally rely on an explicit, positive assertion without independent investigation, absent red flags. No suspicious circumstances appear here. On the bar exam, remember the mnemonic: Material, Reliance, Rescission—regardless of fault. If you see damages in a misrepresentation question, check for scienter. Innocent = rescind only; negligent or fraudulent = rescind plus damages.

Question 11

A used-car dealer is showing a car to a buyer. The buyer asks, "Has this car ever been in a serious accident?" The dealer answers, "In my professional opinion, no; this is a clean one-owner car." In fact, the dealer had bought the car at a salvage auction after a rollover accident and knew of its accident history. The buyer pays the purchase price and later discovers the history. Which statement is most accurate?

The dealer's statement is actionable only if the buyer requested a warranty; otherwise, no.
The dealer's statement is not actionable because puffery and sales opinion are expected in bargaining.
The dealer's statement is not actionable because a buyer is not justified in relying on a dealer's opinion about accident history without inspecting vehicle history records.
The dealer's statement is a fraudulent misrepresentation because an assertion of opinion can be actionable when the speaker knows facts that make the opinion false. (correct answer)

Explanation: Whenever you see a statement made during bargaining, ask two questions: is it fact or opinion, and if opinion, does the speaker know something that makes it false? This question tests fraudulent misrepresentation, and that second question is the key. Here, the dealer answered a direct question with "In my professional opinion, no; this is a clean one-owner car." That sounds like opinion, but an opinion can be actionable when the speaker intentionally asserts it while knowing facts that make it false. The dealer bought the car at a salvage auction after a rollover, so he knew the opinion was false. He also used his "professional" authority to induce reliance, making the statement a fraudulent misrepresentation. The first choice, saying the statement is actionable only if a warranty was requested, is wrong because fraud is an independent tort. It does not require a contract warranty; a false statement of material fact can support liability without any warranty language. The second choice, dismissing the statement as puffery and sales opinion, confuses vague boasting ("best car on the lot") with a specific factual assertion about accident history. A direct answer to a direct question is not puffery. The third choice, claiming the buyer should have inspected vehicle records, is wrong because a buyer may reasonably rely on an expert's explicit assurance, especially when the expert has superior knowledge. No independent investigation is required when the seller gives a definitive, professional answer. Study tip: on the bar exam, "in my opinion" is not automatic protection. Check whether the speaker knew the statement was false. Knowledge of falsity converts opinion into fraud.

Question 12

A seller of commercial real estate told a prospective buyer, "This property is grandfathered as a nonconforming use under the city's zoning code, so you can operate your business here without a permit." The seller had never researched zoning, but he knew the city had recently revoked the property's grandfathered status. The buyer, who was unfamiliar with local zoning law, relied on the statement and purchased the property. After the city ordered the business to cease operation, the buyer sued for fraudulent misrepresentation.

Which of the following is the best statement regarding the buyer's claim?

The claim fails because a statement of law is only a legal opinion and cannot support an action for fraudulent misrepresentation.
The claim fails because every person is charged with knowledge of local zoning laws, so the buyer's reliance on the seller's statement was unjustified.
The claim succeeds because the seller knowingly made a false assertion of legal status as a fact and the buyer justifiably relied on it. (correct answer)
The claim succeeds because ignorance of the law does not prevent the buyer from enforcing his contractual rights against the seller.

Explanation: When you see a fraudulent misrepresentation question, focus on the elements: a false statement of material fact, scienter (knowledge of falsity), intent to induce reliance, justifiable reliance, and damages. The tricky part here is that the statement is about law, not fact. Traditionally, statements of law were treated as opinions—but modern courts recognize that a statement about a specific legal status (like "grandfathered") is a factual assertion when made by someone who holds themselves out as knowledgeable and the listener is not. The seller knew the grandfathered status had been revoked, yet he asserted it as true. That is knowing falsity. The buyer, unfamiliar with zoning law, reasonably relied on the seller's apparent authority. Thus the claim succeeds. The first wrong answer, "statement of law is only a legal opinion," fails because this was a concrete assertion of current legal status, not a general legal conclusion. The second, "every person is charged with knowledge of zoning laws," is a tempting but incorrect trap—reliance is judged by the particular circumstances, and the buyer had no reason to question the seller. The fourth, "ignorance of the law does not prevent enforcing contractual rights," is irrelevant to the tort of misrepresentation—it speaks to contract enforceability, not fraud. The correct answer directly applies the elements: knowing false assertion of fact, justifiable reliance. For the bar, remember: when a statement of law is specific, embedded in facts, and made by a party with superior knowledge, treat it as a statement of fact. Always ask: did the speaker know it was false? Did the listener have reason to rely?