Bar Exam (Next Generation) Quiz: Fair Housing Discrimination
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Fair Housing DiscriminationQuestion 1 of 12

Maya, who has a documented anxiety disorder that substantially limits a major life activity, rents an apartment in a building with a "no pets" policy. Her therapist prescribes an emotional support dog to help manage her symptoms. Maya requests a waiver of the no-pets policy. The landlord denies the request, stating that the building's no-pets policy is a reasonable rule and that Maya can use other coping techniques instead.

Under the federal Fair Housing Act, is the landlord's refusal likely a violation?

No, because an emotional support dog is not a service animal and a landlord need not accommodate untrained animals.
No, because a no-pets policy is a reasonable rule that applies equally to all tenants and Maya can pursue other treatments.
Yes, because the landlord must grant every requested accommodation that relates to a tenant's disability, regardless of the burden.
Yes, because the landlord refused to make a reasonable accommodation in a policy that may be necessary to afford Maya an equal opportunity to use and enjoy her dwelling.
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Bar Exam (Next Generation) Quiz

Bar Exam (Next Generation) Quiz: Fair Housing Discrimination

Practice Fair Housing Discrimination in Bar Exam (Next Generation) with focused quiz questions that help you check what you know, review explanations, and build confidence with test-style prompts.

What this quiz covers

This quiz focuses on Fair Housing Discrimination, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for Bar Exam (Next Generation).

How to use this quiz

Try each quiz question before looking at the correct answer. Use the explanations to review missed ideas, then come back to similar questions until the pattern feels familiar.

All questions

Question 1

Maya, who has a documented anxiety disorder that substantially limits a major life activity, rents an apartment in a building with a "no pets" policy. Her therapist prescribes an emotional support dog to help manage her symptoms. Maya requests a waiver of the no-pets policy. The landlord denies the request, stating that the building's no-pets policy is a reasonable rule and that Maya can use other coping techniques instead.

Under the federal Fair Housing Act, is the landlord's refusal likely a violation?

  1. No, because an emotional support dog is not a service animal and a landlord need not accommodate untrained animals.
  2. No, because a no-pets policy is a reasonable rule that applies equally to all tenants and Maya can pursue other treatments.
  3. Yes, because the landlord must grant every requested accommodation that relates to a tenant's disability, regardless of the burden.
  4. Yes, because the landlord refused to make a reasonable accommodation in a policy that may be necessary to afford Maya an equal opportunity to use and enjoy her dwelling. (correct answer)
Explanation: This question tests the Fair Housing Act's (FHA) reasonable accommodation mandate, which is broader than the ADA. When you see a housing scenario involving an emotional support animal (ESA), remember that the FHA explicitly covers ESAs—they require no task-specific training, unlike ADA service animals. The landlord's refusal is indeed a violation. Maya has a documented disability, and her therapist prescribed the dog as necessary to afford her an equal opportunity to use and enjoy her dwelling. The landlord denied this outright, which fails the duty to reasonably accommodate. The choice stating "Yes, because the landlord refused to make a reasonable accommodation in a policy that may be necessary..." is correct. Now, the wrong answers. The first says "No, because an emotional support dog is not a service animal and a landlord need not accommodate untrained animals"—this is the classic trap; the FHA covers ESAs, so the untrained nature is irrelevant. The second says "No, because a no-pets policy is a reasonable rule that applies equally to all tenants and Maya can pursue other treatments"—but the FHA requires exceptions to neutral policies when disability-related necessity is shown; the landlord cannot substitute "other coping techniques" for the therapist's medical prescription. The third says "Yes, because the landlord must grant every requested accommodation that relates to a tenant's disability, regardless of the burden"—this is overbroad. The duty is to grant reasonable accommodations; the landlord could deny if it imposed an undue financial or administrative burden, but that is not shown here. Strategy: Always distinguish the FHA from the ADA regarding ESAs. Also, watch for "undue burden" as the landlord's only viable defense—a blanket refusal based on a general "no pets" rule is never reasonable.

Question 2

Deshawn owns and occupies one unit in a four-unit apartment building. He personally negotiates rentals, does not use a real estate broker, and has placed no advertisements related to the vacant unit. When Marcus, a Black applicant, applies for the vacant unit, Deshawn refuses to rent to him solely because of Marcus's race.

Which of the following best describes whether Deshawn may be held liable under federal fair housing law?

  1. No, because the Fair Housing Act exempts owner-occupied dwellings containing four or fewer units from all housing-discrimination liability.
  2. No, because private racial discrimination in the sale or rental of residential property does not involve state action and thus does not violate the Fourteenth Amendment.
  3. Yes, because the Fair Housing Act contains no exemption from race discrimination for dwellings with four or fewer units.
  4. Yes, because even if the Fair Housing Act's owner-occupied exemption applies, a separate federal statute gives all citizens the same right to lease real property without racial discrimination. (correct answer)
Explanation: Whenever you see a housing-discrimination question involving a small, owner-occupied building, your first instinct should be to check the Fair Housing Act's (FHA) "Mrs. Murphy" exemption. That exemption applies to dwellings with four or fewer units where the owner occupies one unit and does not use a broker or ads. Critically, this exemption removes liability under FHA §3604(a) and (b) — including the refusal to rent based on race. So here, Deshawn would not be liable under the FHA. However, that is not the end of the analysis. A separate statute, 42 U.S.C. §1982 (the Civil Rights Act of 1866), guarantees all citizens the same right to lease real property without racial discrimination, and it contains no owner-occupied exemption. Since Deshawn refused to rent solely because of Marcus's race, he is liable under §1982 — making the answer "Yes, because even if the FHA's owner-occupied exemption applies, a separate federal statute gives all citizens the same right to lease real property without racial discrimination." Now let's address the traps. The first choice claims the FHA exempts these dwellings from all liability — that's overbroad; §1982 still applies, and the FHA exemption also doesn't cover discriminatory advertising. The second choice wrongly invokes the state-action doctrine; while the Fourteenth Amendment requires state action, §1982 reaches purely private conduct. The third choice asserts the FHA has no exemption for four-or-fewer-unit dwellings — that's false; the exemption exists and applies to refusals to rent. Your study tip: whenever race discrimination in housing is at issue, always check §1982 separately from the FHA. It's the race-only statute with no exemptions — a classic bar-exam distinction.

Question 3

Dana owns a four-unit apartment building and lives in one unit herself. A vacant unit in the building is for rent. When Mateo, who is Black, applies to rent the vacant unit, Dana tells him it has just been rented; she later rents it to a white applicant. Dana did not use a real estate broker or place any advertisement for the vacancy. Mateo files a federal lawsuit.

Which statement is most accurate?

  1. Mateo cannot recover because the Fair Housing Act exempts owner-occupied dwellings with no more than four families, and a private owner's racial preference is not actionable under any other federal statute.
  2. Mateo can recover under the Fair Housing Act because Dana's refusal was based on race and the owner-occupied exemption applies only to single-family houses sold or rented by the owner, not to apartment buildings.
  3. Mateo cannot recover under the Fair Housing Act because Dana's building is owner-occupied, but he may recover under 42 U.S.C. §1982 only if Dana acted under color of state law.
  4. Mateo can recover under 42 U.S.C. §1982 because that statute prohibits private racial discrimination in the sale or rental of property even if the Fair Housing Act's owner-occupied exemption would bar an FHA claim. (correct answer)
Explanation: Housing discrimination questions often test the interplay between the Fair Housing Act's exemptions and Reconstruction-era civil rights statutes. Here, Dana's building fits the FHA's owner-occupied exemption: a dwelling with no more than four families, owner-occupied, with no broker or advertisement used. So Mateo cannot recover under the FHA itself. But that is not the end of the analysis. 42 U.S.C. §1982, which survives as the Civil Rights Act of 1866, prohibits privateracial discrimination in the sale or rental of property and has no owner-occupied exemption. Because Dana rejected Mateo based on race and then rented to a white applicant, Mateo can recover under §1982even though the FHA claim would be barred. That makes this statement the most accurate. The wrong choices each hide a different trap. The claim that "Mateo cannot recover because… a private owner's racial preference is not actionable under any other federal statute" ignores §1982, which specifically reaches private racial discrimination. The claim that Mateo can recover under the FHA because the owner-occupied exemption applies only to single-family houses misreads the statute: the exemption expressly covers owner-occupied buildings with no more than four families, including four-unit apartment buildings. And the claim that Mateo may recover under §1982 only if Dana acted under color of state law misstates§1982: unlike §1983, it requires no state action and applies directly to private parties. Strategy tip: Whenever you see an FHA owner-occupied exemption, immediately ask whether race discrimination could still be actionable under§1982 — it has no equivalent exemption.

Question 4

A homeowner in a predominantly Black neighborhood applies to a bank for a home-equity loan. The bank's staff appraiser values the home at 20 percent below its true market value. The appraiser's internal notes state that the neighborhood is "majority Black" and that "values are unstable when the demographics change." The bank denies the loan based on the appraisal. The homeowner sues under the federal Fair Housing Act.

Which of the following is the most accurate?

  1. The bank and the appraiser are not liable because the Fair Housing Act prohibits discrimination only in the sale or rental of dwellings, not in appraisals.
  2. The bank and the appraiser are liable because the appraisal was used in a residential real estate-related transaction and was based on race. (correct answer)
  3. Only the appraiser is liable because the bank reasonably relied on the appraisal and had no discriminatory motive.
  4. Neither the bank nor the appraiser is liable unless the homeowner proves the bank intentionally denied loans to Black borrowers in other transactions.
Explanation: Whenever you see a Fair Housing Act (FHA) claim, remember the statute's reach is broad—it does not stop at the sale or rental of a dwelling. It also prohibits discrimination in residential real estate-related transactions, which includes appraisals and mortgage lending. In this case, the appraiser's internal notes explicitly state the neighborhood is "majority Black" and that "values are unstable when the demographics change," which is direct evidence that race motivated the 20 percent undervaluation. The bank then used that appraisal to deny the loan. Under 42 U.S.C. § 3605, both the appraiser who made the discriminatory appraisal and the bank that relied on it are liable—the bank cannot shelter behind the appraiser's actions. The first wrong choice claims the FHA only covers sale or rental, but that is false; it expressly covers appraisals and lending. The choice saying only the appraiser is liable because the bank reasonably relied on the appraisal is also wrong—using a tainted appraisal makes the bank an active participant in discrimination. Finally, the choice requiring proof that the bank intentionally denied loans to Black borrowers in other transactions is incorrect because a single act with direct evidence of racial basis is sufficient; you do not need to show a pattern. Your study tip: when facts include an explicit racial comment or note, that is direct evidence—look for liability to attach to anyone who uses that tainted information.

Question 5

Birchwood Commons is a 250-unit apartment complex; all units are occupied. In 190 of those units, at least one resident is 55 years old or older; in the remainder, all residents are under 55. Birchwood has published policies and procedures and satisfies HUD's verification requirements for housing for older persons. It refuses to lease to Maya, a 30-year-old single mother with a 4-year-old child, because it has a no-children policy.

Under the Fair Housing Act, which statement is correct?

  1. Birchwood is not liable because it has published policies and procedures demonstrating an intent to operate housing for persons 55 or older, and families with children may be excluded from such housing.
  2. Birchwood is not liable because familial-status protection does not apply when a housing facility's residents are predominantly age 55 or older.
  3. Birchwood is liable because fewer than 80% of its units are occupied by at least one person age 55 or older, so it does not qualify for the housing-for-older-persons exemption. (correct answer)
  4. Birchwood is liable because even qualifying senior housing may not exclude families with children unless it can prove a business necessity for doing so.
Explanation: Whenever you see a senior-housing exemption question under the Fair Housing Act, the first thing to do is calculate the 80% occupancy threshold—that is the single most common trap on this topic. The Fair Housing Act prohibits familial-status discrimination (refusing to rent to families with children), but it carves out an exemption for "housing for older persons" if the facility meets three strict requirements: (1) at least 80% of the units are occupied by at least one person age 55 or older, (2) it has published policies demonstrating intent to operate as senior housing, and (3) it satisfies HUD's verification requirements. Here, Birchwood has only 190 of 250 units (76%) occupied by someone 55+, which falls below the mandatory 80% threshold. Because it fails that core requirement, it does not qualify for the exemption, so its no-children policy is unlawful discrimination. The choice suggesting Birchwood is not liable because it published policies and procedures is wrong—that only satisfies one of the three elements, and the occupancy threshold is independent and non-negotiable. Similarly, the choice claiming familial-status protection doesn't apply when residents are "predominantly" 55+ is a trap: the law requires a precise 80%, not a general "predominance." Finally, the choice arguing that even qualifying senior housing may not exclude children unless it proves a business necessity misstates the law—if the exemption is met, the facility may exclude families with children entirely, with no business-necessity justification required. Your study tip: whenever you see a question about the 55+ exemption, immediately compute the percentage of units occupied by at least one person 55 or older. If it's 79% or lower, the exemption fails, and the facility is liable for familial-status discrimination regardless of its other policies.

Question 6

Metro Mortgage, a private lender, adopts a written policy not to make mortgage loans on homes located in any census tract where more than half of residents identify as Black or Hispanic. Its policy memorandum cites historically lower property-appreciation rates in those tracts as the reason. Kiana, an otherwise creditworthy Black applicant, applies for a mortgage to buy a home in one of those tracts and is denied solely because of the policy. She sues Metro under the Fair Housing Act.

Which of the following is the best statement regarding Metro's liability?

  1. Metro is liable because mortgage lending is a residential real estate-related transaction and a policy based on the racial composition of neighborhoods discriminates on the basis of race. (correct answer)
  2. Metro is not liable because a lender may rely on objective economic evidence, such as lower appreciation rates, in deciding which neighborhoods pose unacceptable lending risk.
  3. Metro is not liable because the Fair Housing Act prohibits discrimination in the sale and rental of dwellings but does not regulate mortgage lending.
  4. Metro is liable only if Kiana proves that Metro's loan officers acted with discriminatory intent toward her personally, because disparate-impact claims are not available against lenders.
Explanation: Whenever you see a Fair Housing Act (FHA) question, remember that the statute reaches beyond sales and rentals to explicitly cover residential real estate-related transactions, including mortgage lending (42 U.S.C. § 3605). Here, Metro's policy is not a neutral business practice with an incidental racial effect; it is a policy that explicitly uses the racial composition of census tracts as the deciding factor. That is classic redlining and constitutes direct discrimination on the basis of race. Because the policy is facially discriminatory, the economic rationale (lower appreciation rates) is legally irrelevant—you cannot use race as a proxy for risk, no matter how statistically rational it seems. The answer suggesting a lender may rely on objective economic evidence misses this point: such evidence cannot justify a policy that explicitly turns on race. The answer claiming the FHA does not regulate mortgage lending is simply wrong—it does. Finally, the answer requiring proof of discriminatory intent and denying disparate-impact claims is a trap: while disparate-impact claims are available under the FHA, here you don't even need them, because the policy is overtly race-based, so intent is shown by the policy itself. For the exam, remember: any policy that explicitly uses racial demographics as a criterion is a red flag for automatic liability under the FHA, regardless of economic justifications. Focus on whether the policy is facially discriminatory versus merely having a disparate impact.

Question 7

Priya owns four single-family houses, all held as rental investments. She has never lived in any of them. Without using a broker, agent, or advertising, she refuses to sell one to an African American buyer and instead sells it to a white buyer, telling the rejected buyer, "I don't want to sell to someone of your race."

Under the federal Fair Housing Act, is Priya liable for discrimination?

  1. No, because she did not use a broker, agent, or discriminatory advertising, and the sale was of a single-family house by its owner.
  2. No, because she is not in the business of selling dwellings and had not sold another house within the preceding two years.
  3. Yes, because the single-family owner exemption applies only to a private owner who owns no more than three single-family houses at one time. (correct answer)
  4. Yes, because she was not residing in the house at the time of sale and had sold another house within the preceding two years.
Explanation: Whenever you see a Fair Housing Act question involving the "single-family owner" exemption, your first move should be to count how many single-family houses the owner has. The FHA prohibits race discrimination in selling dwellings, and a narrow exemption lets a private owner sell a house without a broker or advertising—but only if that owner does not own more than three single-family houses at one time. Priya owns four, so the exemption does not apply. Her explicit refusal based on race is discrimination, and the absence of a broker, agent, or advertising does not rescue her. The answer that says "No, because she did not use a broker, agent, or discriminatory advertising" mistakes those conditions for the exemption itself; they are additional requirements once the ownership cap is met, not substitutes for that cap. The answer that says "No, because she is not in the business of selling dwellings and had not sold another house within the preceding two years" invents elements the statute does not impose; the exemption depends on owning no more than three houses, not on being in the business or on a two-year sales history. The other "Yes" answer—that she was not residing in the house and had sold another house within two years—reaches the right bottom line but gives the wrong reason; her liability rests on owning four houses, not on her residency or prior sales. In fact, even if she had never sold another house, she would still be liable because she owns more than three. Study tip: when a question emphasizes "no broker, no advertising, no agent," it is setting up the single-family owner exemption. Immediately check the number of houses owned; if it is four or more, the exemption is gone and discrimination is unlawful.

Question 8

A city zoning ordinance permits single-family residences and defines "family" as persons related by blood, marriage, or adoption, or not more than four unrelated persons living together. A nonprofit leases a house in a single-family zone as a group home for six adults with intellectual disabilities. The city denies the nonprofit's application for a special use permit, citing the unrelated-person limit. The denial makes it impossible for the home to operate in that neighborhood.

Under the federal Fair Housing Act, which of the following is the most accurate?

  1. The city has not violated the Act because zoning ordinances and land-use regulations are not covered by the Act.
  2. The city may be required to grant a reasonable accommodation from the unrelated-person limit unless doing so would impose an undue financial or administrative burden or fundamentally alter its zoning scheme. (correct answer)
  3. The city has not violated the Act because the unrelated-person limit applies equally to disabled and nondisabled groups.
  4. The city must grant the permit because the group home serves persons with disabilities and any denial of a special use permit for a disability-related residence is per se unlawful.
Explanation: Whenever you see a zoning ordinance or occupancy limit applied to a group home for people with disabilities, think Fair Housing Act reasonable accommodation. The FHA covers zoning and land-use rules, and it requires cities to make exceptions to neutral rules when necessary to give disabled persons an equal opportunity to use housing. Here, the unrelated-person limit makes it impossible for six unrelated adults with intellectual disabilities to live together. That is precisely the kind of barrier a reasonable accommodation can address. The city may be required to waive or modify the limit unless doing so would impose an undue financial or administrative burden or fundamentally alter its zoning scheme. This is a fact-specific balancing test, not an automatic win for the provider. The answer saying zoning ordinances are not covered is wrong: the FHA explicitly applies to land-use regulations, including occupancy limits. The answer saying the limit is fine because it applies equally to disabled and nondisabled groups is also wrong: a facially neutral rule can still violate the FHA when it operates to exclude people with disabilities and an accommodation is needed. Finally, the answer that the city must grant the permit is too absolute: the provider is entitled to a reasonable accommodation, but not to an unconditional permit if the city can prove undue burden or fundamental alteration. Study tip: distinguish "reasonable accommodation" from "per se entitlement." The FHA demands flexibility, not guaranteed outcomes.

Question 9

In 1950, a developer recorded a covenant for a subdivision providing that "no lot shall ever be sold, leased, or occupied by any person who is not Caucasian." The covenant was included in all deeds and remains in the chain of title. A current owner, who is white, contracts to sell her home to a Black buyer. Other owners in the subdivision ask a court to enjoin the sale and enforce the covenant.

Which of the following best describes the court's proper ruling?

  1. The court may enforce the covenant because the Fair Housing Act does not prohibit the sale of a home by a private owner who does not use a broker.
  2. The court may not enforce the covenant because judicial enforcement of a racially discriminatory covenant constitutes state action that violates the Equal Protection Clause. (correct answer)
  3. The court may enforce the covenant because the covenant is a private agreement and therefore not subject to the Equal Protection Clause.
  4. The court may not enforce the covenant because the Fair Housing Act makes all racially restrictive covenants void as a matter of law.
Explanation: Whenever you see a racially restrictive covenant, the key is to distinguish private prejudice from state action. Here, the covenant purports to exclude non-Caucasian buyers, and the other owners ask a court to enjoin the sale. A court order enforcing that covenant would be government action, so it violates the Equal Protection Clause under Shelley v. Kraemer. The covenant can remain in the chain of title, but courts will not enforce it. The choice saying the court may not enforce the covenant because judicial enforcement is state action is therefore correct. The choice saying the covenant is enforceable as a private agreement not subject to the Equal Protection Clause confuses the covenant itself with the requested injunction: the agreement may be private, but the court's enforcement is not. The choice relying on the Fair Housing Act's exception for private sales without a broker misses the point—even if that statutory exception applies, the constitutional bar on judicial enforcement remains. And the choice claiming the Fair Housing Act makes all racially restrictive covenants void as a matter of law overstates the statute; the decisive problem here is not the statute but the Constitution. Study tip: whenever a court is asked to enforce a discriminatory covenant, immediately flag "state action" and Shelley. Private parties can agree to many things, but they cannot ask a court to do what the Equal Protection Clause forbids.

Question 10

Gina owns and occupies one unit in a three-unit residential building. To fill a vacancy, she places a newspaper advertisement stating: 'Large apartment in quiet building. Adults only. No children.'

Under the Fair Housing Act, may Gina be held liable based on the advertisement?

  1. Yes, because the Act's advertising prohibition applies even to owners who would be exempt from liability for the rental itself, and 'adults only' signals a preference against families with children. (correct answer)
  2. No, because the advertisement expresses a preference about age, and age is not one of the protected classes under the Fair Housing Act.
  3. No, because the owner-occupied exemption for buildings containing no more than four families excludes the property from all Fair Housing Act liability, including advertising.
  4. Yes, because refusing to rent to families with children is never lawful under the Act, even for an owner-occupied three-unit building, and the advertisement is an admission of that unlawful refusal.
Explanation: Whenever you see an advertisement that singles out tenants by age or family status, the Fair Housing Act's treatment of familial status should be your first thought. Familial status is a protected class, and the Act forbids any advertisement that indicates a preference based on it—even if the underlying rental would be exempt under the "Mrs. Murphy" exemption. Gina's "Adults only. No children." advertisement does exactly that: it signals a preference against households with children, so it violates the advertising prohibition. The key distinction is that the advertising ban applies even to owners who would be exempt from liability for the rental itself. The wrong choices each illustrate a trap. Saying "age is not protected" misses the point: "adults only" is not age discrimination, it is familial-status discrimination because it excludes children, and children are protected through their families. The owner-occupied exemption for a building containing no more than four families is real for rental transactions, but Congress specifically did not apply that exemption to the advertising prohibition; so the ad can create liability even if a sale or rental itself would be exempt. And the choice saying refusal to rent to families with children is "never lawful" goes too far: under the owner-occupied exemption, some rental discrimination may be lawful in a three-unit building, but the advertisement itself is independently prohibited—it need not be an admission of an unlawful refusal. Study tip: whenever an ad says "adults only" or "no children," think familial status, not age, and remember that the Mrs. Murphy exemption protects certain owner-occupied rentals but never protects discriminatory advertising.

Question 11

Robert manages a 40-unit apartment building. Dana, who is eight months pregnant and has no children, applies to rent a one-bedroom apartment. Robert tells her, 'This building is for adults only.' He refuses to rent to her because she is pregnant. Dana sues under the Fair Housing Act.

Which of the following is the best statement regarding Dana's claim?

  1. Yes, because the Act defines familial status to include a person who is pregnant, so refusing to rent because of pregnancy or an anticipated child is unlawful family-status discrimination. (correct answer)
  2. No, because an 'adults only' rental policy is an age preference, and age is not a protected class under the Act unless the building qualifies as housing for older persons.
  3. No, because the Act's familial-status protection applies only when a minor child actually resides with the applicant, and Dana has no child currently living with her.
  4. No, because Robert's refusal is based on Dana's status as an expectant parent, not on her sex, and pregnancy discrimination is not covered by the Act unless she already has minor children.
Explanation: When you see a Fair Housing Act (FHA) claim, first identify the protected class at issue. Familial status is one of the seven protected classes, and it specifically includes pregnant persons. Robert's "adults only" policy is not a neutral age preference; it is a direct refusal based on Dana's pregnancy. The FHA defines familial status to include a person who is pregnant, so the refusal is unlawful discrimination because of anticipated children, even though no child lives with her yet. This is why the choice stating that the Act defines familial status to include a pregnant person is correct. The choice claiming that "adults only" is an age preference and age is not protected misses the point: while age itself is not a protected class (except for the housing-for-older-persons exemption), the policy here is a proxy for familial-status discrimination, which is protected. The choice stating protection applies only when a minor child actually resides with the applicant is wrong because the statutory definition explicitly extends coverage to pregnant persons, regardless of current residency. Similarly, the choice arguing that pregnancy discrimination is not covered unless she has minor children misstates the law; the FHA's plain language covers expectant parents. Finally, the choice that bases the claim on sex is a red herring—pregnancy is not solely a sex issue here; it is squarely a familial-status issue. Study tip: Memorize the FHA's protected classes and note that familial status includes pregnancy and the process of adopting or fostering, not just current custodial parents.

Question 12

Omar owns and lives in a three-unit apartment building. He rents the other two units himself, without a broker. To fill a vacancy, he posts an online advertisement: "Quiet, well-maintained building. Adults only—no children." A woman with a six-year-old child applies, and Omar refuses to rent to her solely because she has a child.

Under the federal Fair Housing Act, which of the following is most accurate?

  1. Omar is not liable because the building is exempt as an owner-occupied dwelling of four or fewer units, and familial status is not a protected class under that exemption.
  2. Omar is not liable because he did not use a broker or agent, and the owner-occupied exemption applies to both the rental and the advertisement.
  3. Omar is liable because the online advertisement discriminates on the basis of familial status, and the owner-occupied exemption does not excuse discriminatory advertising. (correct answer)
  4. Omar is liable only if the woman proves that Omar would have rented to an applicant without children and that the refusal had a discriminatory effect.
Explanation: Whenever you see an FHA question involving an owner-occupied building with four or fewer units, think of the "Mrs. Murphy" exemption—but remember how narrow it is. Familial status is a protected class under the Fair Housing Act, and discrimination against families with children is illegal. Omar's online ad, "Adults only—no children," explicitly indicates a preference based on familial status, which the FHA's advertising prohibition bars. His refusal to rent solely because of the child is direct evidence of discrimination. The owner-occupied exemption does not excuse discriminatory advertising, so Omar is liable. The answer claiming Omar is not liable because the building is exempt and familial status is not protected under that exemption is wrong twice: familial status is protected, and the exemption does not erase the ad violation. The answer claiming that because Omar did not use a broker the exemption covers both the rental and the advertisement also fails, because the exemption never extends to advertising. Finally, the answer saying Omar is liable only if the woman proves he would have rented to a childless applicant and the refusal had a discriminatory effect is too narrow: an explicit discriminatory ad and refusal are direct proof, and no such hypothetical showing is required. On the exam, whenever you see "adults only," "no children," or similar language, mark a familial-status violation immediately—even if the owner might otherwise qualify for an exemption.