Bar Exam (Next Generation) Quiz: Effect Of Judgment
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Effect Of JudgmentQuestion 1 of 12

In a federal case, a plaintiff sued a manufacturer for negligence and loss of consortium. The court entered partial summary judgment for the plaintiff on the negligence claim, finding the manufacturer liable, but the loss-of-consortium claim remained pending. Before the remaining claim was resolved, the plaintiff filed a separate action against the manufacturer for a different injury caused by the same product and sought to use the partial summary judgment as conclusive proof of negligence.

Will the partial summary judgment have preclusive effect in the separate action?

Yes, because the negligence issue was actually determined after the parties had an opportunity to be heard.
Yes, because partial summary judgment is a final judgment as to the liability issue.
No, because the partial summary judgment was not a final judgment and remains subject to revision.
No, because the separate action involved a different injury and therefore a different negligence issue.
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Bar Exam (Next Generation) Quiz

Bar Exam (Next Generation) Quiz: Effect Of Judgment

Practice Effect Of Judgment in Bar Exam (Next Generation) with focused quiz questions that help you check what you know, review explanations, and build confidence with test-style prompts.

What this quiz covers

This quiz focuses on Effect Of Judgment, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for Bar Exam (Next Generation).

How to use this quiz

Try each quiz question before looking at the correct answer. Use the explanations to review missed ideas, then come back to similar questions until the pattern feels familiar.

All questions

Question 1

In a federal case, a plaintiff sued a manufacturer for negligence and loss of consortium. The court entered partial summary judgment for the plaintiff on the negligence claim, finding the manufacturer liable, but the loss-of-consortium claim remained pending. Before the remaining claim was resolved, the plaintiff filed a separate action against the manufacturer for a different injury caused by the same product and sought to use the partial summary judgment as conclusive proof of negligence.

Will the partial summary judgment have preclusive effect in the separate action?

  1. Yes, because the negligence issue was actually determined after the parties had an opportunity to be heard.
  2. Yes, because partial summary judgment is a final judgment as to the liability issue.
  3. No, because the partial summary judgment was not a final judgment and remains subject to revision. (correct answer)
  4. No, because the separate action involved a different injury and therefore a different negligence issue.
Explanation: The key here is finality. Issue preclusion—whether called collateral estoppel or issue preclusion—requires the issue to have been actually litigated, essential to the judgment, and reduced to a final judgment. A partial summary judgment on liability is an interlocutory order: it resolves one claim but leaves the loss-of-consortium claim pending. Under Federal Rule of Civil Procedure 54(b), such an order remains subject to revision until the entire case is concluded unless the court certifies it for immediate appeal. Because it is not yet final, it cannot carry preclusive effect into a separate action. The choice saying "yes, because the negligence issue was actually determined after the parties had an opportunity to be heard" captures one required element but omits finality. The choice saying "yes, because partial summary judgment is a final judgment as to the liability issue" is the classic trap: a partial adjudication of liability is not a final judgment for preclusion purposes, even if it conclusively establishes liability within the ongoing case. The choice saying "no, because the separate action involved a different injury and therefore a different negligence issue" misdiagnoses the problem; the same defect could present the same negligence issue, and preclusion can apply across different injuries if the judgment were final. The real defect is non-finality. Study tip: before applying preclusion, always ask, "Was the prior decision a final judgment on the merits?" If not, stop there.

Question 2

A bus struck a guardrail, injuring two passengers. The first passenger sued the bus company. The bus company did not appear, and the court entered a default judgment for the first passenger. The second passenger then sued the bus company for injuries from the same accident and moved for summary judgment, arguing that the default judgment conclusively established that the bus company was negligent.

Should the second passenger's motion be granted?

  1. Yes, because the default judgment is a final judgment on the merits and is binding on the bus company.
  2. Yes, because the bus company had the opportunity to litigate negligence and chose not to do so.
  3. No, because the negligence issue was not actually litigated and determined in the default proceeding. (correct answer)
  4. No, because issue preclusion cannot be asserted by a plaintiff who was not a party to the earlier action.
Explanation: This question tests issue preclusion (collateral estoppel) and its central requirement: the issue must have been actually litigated and determined. When you see a prior judgment in a later case, ask not just whether it's final, but whether the issue was genuinely contested. Here, the bus company's default judgment cannot establish negligence because the company never appeared, so negligence was never litigated. The court simply entered judgment by default. That means the negligence issue was not "actually determined" in the prior proceeding, and the second passenger cannot use it offensively. The choice saying the default judgment is a final judgment on the merits and binding misses the distinction: a default judgment is final and may be binding for claim preclusion as to that same claim, but it does not carry issue-preclusive effect because nothing was contested. The choice that the company had the opportunity to litigate and chose not to is also a trap: actual litigation is the touchstone, not mere opportunity. Defaulting waives the opportunity but does not produce a litigated determination. Finally, the choice that a plaintiff who was not a party cannot assert issue preclusion is too broad. Nonmutual issue preclusion against a party is generally allowed; the real problem here is lack of actual litigation. Strategy tip: Whenever you see a default judgment or consent judgment, remember it is a "litigation-free" judgment—issue preclusion ordinarily does not attach.

Question 3

Pei-shan sued Ngo for breach of a licensing agreement in federal court. Ngo answered but did not assert a claim for unpaid royalties that had accrued under the same agreement before his answer was filed. After Pei-shan obtained a judgment on the merits, Ngo filed a new action against Pei-shan seeking those unpaid royalties.

Should the new action be dismissed?

  1. Yes, because the royalties claim was a compulsory counterclaim in the first action and is now barred. (correct answer)
  2. Yes, because the first judgment conclusively established that the licensing agreement was valid.
  3. No, because Ngo's royalties claim is a separate cause of action that was not actually litigated.
  4. No, because a party may not be barred from asserting an independent claim for unpaid royalties.
Explanation: Whenever you see a question about a claim that was not raised in a prior lawsuit, think about compulsory counterclaims under Rule 13(a). If the claim arises from the same transaction or occurrence as the plaintiff's claim and was already mature when the answer was due, it must be pleaded or it is lost. Ngo's royalties accrued under the same licensing agreement before he answered, so they clearly arise from the same transaction as Pei-shan's breach claim. Thus, the new action is barred — not because the royalties were litigated, but because they should have been litigated in the first suit. That makes the correct answer: "Yes, because the royalties claim was a compulsory counterclaim in the first action and is now barred." The wrong answers each miss this key rule. "Yes, because the first judgment conclusively established that the licensing agreement was valid" mistakes the effect of the judgment — it bars claims that could have been raised, not just facts actually decided. "No, because Ngo's royalties claim is a separate cause of action that was not actually litigated" misunderstands claim preclusion: compulsory counterclaims are barred even if never litigated. And "No, because a party may not be barred from asserting an independent claim for unpaid royalties" ignores that this claim is not independent — it is transactionally related to the first suit. Study tip: When you see a defendant who wants to sue later, ask: (1) Did the claim exist before the answer? (2) Does it arise from the same transaction? If yes to both, it's compulsory — raise it or lose it.

Question 4

In a federal diversity action, VideoCorp sued GameBox for misappropriation of trade secrets. The federal court dismissed the action for lack of personal jurisdiction over GameBox. VideoCorp then filed the same claim against GameBox in state court, where the court had personal jurisdiction. GameBox moved to dismiss, arguing that the federal dismissal was a final judgment on the merits and barred the state action.

Is GameBox correct?

  1. Yes, because a federal court dismissal is an adjudication on the merits unless the court states otherwise.
  2. Yes, because the dismissal was final and VideoCorp did not appeal it.
  3. No, because a dismissal for lack of personal jurisdiction is not an adjudication on the merits. (correct answer)
  4. No, because GameBox was not subject to the federal court's jurisdiction and therefore cannot rely on the dismissal.
Explanation: Whenever you see a dismissal being used to block a later lawsuit, ask one question first: did the first court decide the merits? A dismissal for lack of personal jurisdiction is not a decision about whether VideoCorp's claim is valid; it is a decision that the federal court had no power to hear the case at all. That means GameBox is wrong — the federal dismissal does not bar the state action. The correct answer is that a dismissal for lack of personal jurisdiction is not an adjudication on the merits. Preclusion requires a valid, final judgment on the merits, and a jurisdictional dismissal never reaches the substance of the claim. The state court may therefore hear the same trade-secret claim. Now the distractors. The first wrong choice claims a federal court dismissal is on the merits unless the court states otherwise. That misstates Rule 41(b): while some involuntary dismissals are on the merits, dismissals for lack of jurisdiction, venue, or failure to join a party are expressly not. The second wrong choice argues finality plus failure to appeal makes the dismissal preclusive. But finality alone does not create claim preclusion; the dismissal must also be on the merits, and this one was not. The fourth wrong choice says GameBox cannot rely on the dismissal because it was not subject to federal jurisdiction. That is not the reason — GameBox can certainly benefit from the dismissal, but the benefit is only that the federal court dismissed the case, not that the merits were resolved. For the exam, remember: jurisdictional dismissals are "not on the merits" — they end that case, but they do not kill the claim.

Question 5

After a car accident, a plaintiff sued the driver in federal court. The driver's liability insurer, under its policy, had the exclusive right to control the defense. The insurer selected the lawyer, rejected a settlement offer within policy limits, and chose to go to trial. The jury found the driver negligent. The plaintiff then sued the insurer in federal court for bad-faith failure to settle, and the insurer moved to relitigate whether the driver was negligent.

Which of the following is most accurate?

  1. The insurer may relitigate negligence because it was not a party to the underlying action.
  2. The insurer is bound on the negligence issue because it controlled the defense and had a full and fair opportunity to litigate it. (correct answer)
  3. The insurer may relitigate negligence because it was not in privity with the driver.
  4. The insurer is bound on the negligence issue only if the plaintiff can show the insurer's refusal to settle was unreasonable.
Explanation: This question tests collateral estoppel (issue preclusion> as applied to a nonparty who controlled the prior litigation. Whenever you see an issue being relitigated by someone who wasn't named in the earlier case, ask two questions: did the party control the prior proceedings, and did it have a full and fair opportunity to litigate the issue? Here the correct answer is that the insurer is bound because it controlled the defense and had a full and fair opportunity to litigate negligence. The insurer's policy gave it the exclusive right to control the defense; it selected the lawyer, rejected the settlement offer, and chose trial. That control is what matters: collateral estoppel prevents a litigant who effectively ran the prior fight from getting a second bite at the same issue, even if it wasn't formally a party. The negligence finding was actually litigated, essential to the judgment, and now binds the insurer in the bad-faith suit. The first wrong choice, arguing the insurer mayrelitigate because it was not a party, misses that control can substitute for formal party status. The third wrong choice, "not in privity with the driver," similarly fails because control is an independent basis for preclusion—privity is not required when the nonparty directed the litigation. The fourth wrong choice, binding the insurer only if its refusal to settle was unreasonable, confuses the merits of the bad-faith claim with the preclusive effect of the prior judgment: the negligence issue was already fully decided, and that decision binds the insurer regardless of whether its settlement strategy later proves unreasonable. Unreasonableness goes to the bad-faith claim itself, not to whether negligence may be relitigated. Study takeaway: remember the control doctrine—a nonparty who controls a lawsuit is bound by issue preclusion, just as if it had been named a party. On exam questions, party status and privity are red herrings when the facts show actual control.

Question 6

Owen contracted with Dana to renovate her restaurant for $80,000. Owen completed the work, but Dana paid only $40,000. Owen sued Dana for breach of contract and obtained a judgment for the unpaid $40,000 after a bench trial. Owen later filed a second action against Dana in the same court, seeking $10,000 in consequential damages caused by the same renovation delays. Owen had not mentioned those damages in the first action.

Should the second action be dismissed under claim preclusion?

  1. No, because the first judgment merged only the claim for the unpaid contract price, leaving the consequential-damages claim available.
  2. No, because consequential damages were neither litigated nor determined in the first action and cannot be deemed waived.
  3. Yes, because the judgment bars all claims arising from the same transaction that Owen could have asserted in the first action. (correct answer)
  4. Yes, because Owen's failure to plead the full amount of his damages was a forfeiture of any later claim.
Explanation: Claim preclusion, or res judicata, bars a second suit when there is a final judgment on the merits and the later claim arises from the same transaction or occurrence. The judgment extinguishes not only the claims actually litigated, but every theory of recovery or item of damage that the plaintiff could have raised. Here, Owen already obtained a final judgment against Dana for the unpaid contract price. His new claim for consequential damages from the same renovation delays arises from the same contract and transaction. Because Owen could have asserted those damages in the first action, claim preclusion bars him from bringing them now. The suggestion that the first judgment merged only the unpaid contract price misunderstands the rule against claim splitting: a final judgment merges the entire claim, including all damages arising from that transaction, not just the amount pleaded. The suggestion that consequential damages were neither litigated nor determined, and therefore not waived, also misses the point—preclusion applies to claims that reasonably could have been litigated, not just those actually determined. Finally, the "forfeiture" framing is imprecise: this is not a penalty for failing to plead the full damage amount, but a structural rule that a single transaction must be pursued in one lawsuit. When you see a later suit based on the same contract, same project, or same injury, ask whether it arises from the same transaction—if so, it is barred.

Question 7

Sofia obtained a default judgment for $100,000 against Noah in State A. Noah was served in State B under State A's long-arm statute, and he never appeared in the State A action. Sofia later filed an action on the judgment in federal court in State B, where Noah lived. Noah moved to dismiss, arguing that the State A court lacked personal jurisdiction over him because he had no contacts with State A.

Which of the following best describes Noah's argument?

  1. It is barred by full faith and credit because the State A judgment must be recognized if the court had subject matter jurisdiction.
  2. It is barred because Noah failed to appear and therefore waived any objection to personal jurisdiction.
  3. It may succeed because a defendant who did not appear may collaterally attack a judgment on the ground that the rendering court lacked personal jurisdiction. (correct answer)
  4. It may succeed only if Noah can prove that State A's long-arm statute did not authorize service on him.
Explanation: When you see a question about enforcing a judgment from another state, the Full Faith and Credit Clause is the starting point, but you must immediately recall its critical exception: a judgment rendered without personal jurisdiction is void and not entitled to recognition. Here, Noah's argument correctly invokes that exception. Because he never appeared in the State A action, he did not waive his objection to personal jurisdiction; instead, he preserved the right to attack the default judgment collaterally in the enforcement proceeding. If the State A court lacked minimum contacts with Noah, the judgment is invalid, and a federal court in State B can refuse to enforce it. The choice stating that full faith and credit bars the argument is wrong because that clause only compels recognition of valid judgments—a judgment lacking personal jurisdiction is not valid. The choice claiming that failing to appear waives the objection is also a trap; waiver occurs only when a defendant appears and fails to raise the defense, not when they stay away. Finally, the choice about proving the long-arm statute did not authorize service is too narrow. Even if the statute authorized service, Noah could still succeed by proving the exercise of jurisdiction violates federal due process—the constitutional minimum contacts standard. On the exam, remember this pattern: a non-appearing defendant can always collaterally attack a default judgment on personal jurisdiction grounds, so watch for any answer that equates non-appearance with waiver.

Question 8

A driver sued a car manufacturer in federal court, asserting claims of negligence and strict products liability based on an allegedly defective fuel system. The jury returned a general verdict for the driver. The driver later sued the same manufacturer for injuries from a different accident involving the same fuel-system design and sought to use the first verdict to establish that the fuel system was defective.

Will the first verdict have issue-preclusive effect on the defect question?

  1. Yes, because the verdict was for the driver and could not have been returned unless the jury found the fuel system defective.
  2. Yes, because the manufacturer had a full and fair opportunity to litigate the defect issue in the first case.
  3. No, because the second accident involved a different injury and a different occurrence.
  4. No, because a general verdict does not reveal which theory or issues the jury actually determined. (correct answer)
Explanation: When you see an issue-preclusion question, ask: What exactly was decided? Issue preclusion only bars relitigation of a specific issue that was actually litigated, actually determined, and essential to the prior judgment. A general verdict — a single answer for the plaintiff — does not tell you which theory (negligence or strict liability) or which factual finding (defect, causation, etc.) the jury relied on. So the first verdict cannot establish the fuel system was defective, because the jury might have found for the driver on negligence without ever reaching the defect question, or on a different theory entirely. That is why the correct answer is the one noting that a general verdict does not reveal which theory or issues the jury actually determined. The answer suggesting the verdict could not have been returned unless the jury found the fuel system defective is wrong — the jury could have found negligence based on a failure to warn or another non-defect theory. The answer that the manufacturer had a full and fair opportunity is also wrong: that requirement is necessary, but not sufficient; you still need actual determination of the specific issue. The answer about a different injury and occurrence is a tempting distractor — mutuality of estoppel and same-accident concerns exist, but here the real flaw is the ambiguity of the general verdict, not the difference in facts. Study tip: Whenever a prior judgment is a general verdict, always check whether the issue you want to preclude was necessarily decided. If not, no preclusion.

Question 9

A train derailment injured 100 passengers. The first passenger to go to trial in federal court obtained a jury verdict against the railroad, and the jury specifically found that the railroad's defective track caused the derailment. The railroad defended that case vigorously. A second passenger, whose own suit was already pending in the same court, then moved for summary judgment, asking the court to give the jury's finding preclusive effect. The second passenger had never sought to consolidate her case with the first passenger's case.

How should the court rule on the second passenger's motion?

  1. Grant the motion, because the railroad had a full and fair opportunity to litigate the defect issue and the finding was essential to the judgment.
  2. Grant the motion, because the second passenger's failure to seek consolidation cannot defeat issue preclusion after the issue was actually litigated.
  3. Deny the motion, because nonmutual offensive collateral estoppel is not permitted in federal court.
  4. Deny the motion, because the passenger could have sought consolidation and a court may refuse offensive collateral estoppel when a plaintiff could have joined. (correct answer)
Explanation: This question tests offensive nonmutual collateral estoppel—when a different plaintiff in a later suit tries to use a finding from an earlier suit against the same defendant. Federal courts permit this after Parklane Hosiery v. Shore, but a trial judge has discretion to refuse it when fairness requires. One key fairness factor is whether the second plaintiff could easily have joined or consolidated with the first suit. Here, the second passenger already had her own case pending in the same court and never sought consolidation. So the court should deny the motion: the passenger could have sought consolidation, and a court may refuse offensive collateral estoppel when a plaintiff could have joined. The suggestion to "grant because the railroad had a full and fair opportunity and the finding was essential" is too simplistic—those are necessary conditions, but they do not eliminate the court's discretion to protect a defendant from facing piecemeal litigation on the same issue. The suggestion to "grant because failure to seek consolidation cannot defeat preclusion" is backward; that failure is exactly why denial is proper. And the claim that "nonmutual offensive collateral estoppel is not permitted in federal court" misstates the law—it is permitted, but discretionary. On issue-preclusion questions, always ask: was the party seeking to use the finding the same party, or could the plaintiff have joined the earlier case? If they could have joined, expect the court to deny preclusion.

Question 10

In a federal employment discrimination suit, the district court granted summary judgment for the employer on statute-of-limitations grounds. The court of appeals reversed, holding that the limitations period was tolled by the employer's concealment, and remanded for trial. On remand, the employer presented newly discovered evidence showing that the plaintiff had known of the discrimination before the alleged tolling period began.

Which of the following best describes the district court's authority on remand?

  1. It is bound by the court of appeals' limitations holding and may not revisit it for any reason.
  2. It may revisit the limitations holding if the newly discovered evidence was unavailable before remand and materially changes the issue. (correct answer)
  3. It may disregard the court of appeals' holding because the law-of-the-case doctrine applies only to trial court rulings.
  4. It must hold a new evidentiary hearing on tolling because the mandate rule is procedural only.
Explanation: When a case returns to the district court after an appeal, the central concept is the mandate rule (a species of law of the case): the district court must follow the court of appeals' holdings on remand. But the doctrine is not absolute — it yields when a materially new development changes the legal issue. That is exactly what the employer's newly discovered evidence does: it allegedly shows the plaintiff knew of the discrimination before the concealment-based tolling period began, which would undermine the appellate court's limitations holding. Because that evidence was unavailable before remand and goes to the heart of the tolling issue, the district court may revisit the holding. That is why the correct answer is the choice that says it may revisit the limitations holding if the newly discovered evidence was unavailable before remand and materially changes the issue. The other choices fail for specific reasons. The choice saying the court is bound and may not revisit it for any reason is too absolute: it ignores the recognized exception for genuinely new, material evidence. The choice saying the court may disregard the appellate holding because law-of-the-case applies only to trial court rulings is backwards — the doctrine binds the trial court because appellate courts' rulings control proceedings on remand. The choice saying the court must hold a new evidentiary hearing on tolling because the mandate rule is procedural only is also wrong: the mandate rule is substantive in effect, not merely procedural, and a hearing is not automatically required just because new evidence appears; the question is whether the evidence is sufficient to reopen the issue. Strategy: on bar review questions, remember law of the case controls unless new evidence or changed circumstances materially alter the issue — and test any answer that says "never" or "always."

Question 11

Paula sued Drake in federal court for fraudulent misrepresentation. Drake moved to dismiss under Federal Rule of Civil Procedure 12(b)(6), and the court granted the motion and entered judgment. Paula then filed the same claim in state court, adding the specific factual allegations she had omitted from her federal complaint. Drake moved to dismiss on claim-preclusion grounds.

Should the state court dismiss the action?

  1. No, because the federal dismissal was for failure to state a claim and therefore was not on the merits.
  2. No, because Paula's new allegations state a claim and cure the defect in her federal pleading.
  3. Yes, because the federal dismissal operates as an adjudication on the merits unless the court specified otherwise. (correct answer)
  4. Yes, because the federal dismissal conclusively established that Drake made no fraudulent misrepresentation.
Explanation: Whenever you see a prior dismissal followed by a later suit, you are in claim-preclusion territory. The key question is whether the first judgment was final, valid, on the merits, and between the same parties and the same claim. A 12(b)(6) dismissal for failure to state a claim is generally an adjudication on the merits under Rule 41(b), even though it tests only the sufficiency of the pleading, not the truth of the facts. Here, the federal court granted Drake's motion and entered judgment without saying the dismissal was "without prejudice" or otherwise non-merits. So the federal judgment is preclusive. Paula's added factual allegations do not create a new claim; claim preclusion bars every theory and piece of evidence that could have been raised in the first action about the same fraudulent misrepresentation. Therefore, a state court should dismiss. The choice saying "No, because the federal dismissal was for failure to state a claim and therefore was not on the merits" misunderstands Rule 41(b): merits can be reached through the pleadings. The "No, because Paula's new allegations state a claim" choice confuses pleading sufficiency with preclusion; a cured complaint cannot revive a claim already barred. The "Yes, because the federal dismissal conclusively established that Drake made no fraudulent misrepresentation" choice overstates the effect: a 12(b)(6) dismissal makes no factual findings. Study tip: whenever you see a prior dismissal, look to the order's language for "with prejudice," "without prejudice," or "on the merits." If silent, assume it operates as a merits adjudication and will bar refiling.

Question 12

A buyer sued a seller in federal court for breach of an equipment sale contract. Before trial, the parties stipulated to entry of judgment for the buyer in the amount of $75,000, and the court entered that judgment. The buyer later sued the seller for fraud based on the same sale. The seller moved to dismiss, and the buyer argued that the earlier judgment conclusively established that the seller had made fraudulent misrepresentations.

Which of the following is correct?

  1. The consent judgment bars the fraud claim because it is a final judgment on the merits, but it does not conclusively establish fraud. (correct answer)
  2. The consent judgment does not bar the fraud claim because the fraud issue was not actually litigated.
  3. The consent judgment bars the fraud claim and conclusively establishes fraud because the seller consented to judgment.
  4. The consent judgment bars the fraud claim, but only if the court made findings of fact supporting the judgment.
Explanation: Claim preclusion and issue preclusion are two different doctrines. When you see a prior judgment being used in a later lawsuit, ask: is this about the same claim being barred, or about a fact being treated as established? A consent judgment is a final judgment on the merits, so it bars any claim that arises from the same transaction and could have been brought earlier. But because the parties stipulated to judgment, no issue was actually litigated, so the judgment carries no collateral estoppel effect. Here, the buyer's fraud claim arises from the same equipment sale as the breach claim. The consent judgment therefore bars the fraud claim—the buyer had one opportunity to raise all theories arising from that sale. That is why the correct answer is the one saying the judgment bars the claim but does not conclusively establish fraud. The judgment is conclusive only as to the fact that the buyer was entitled to $75,000 under the contract; it says nothing about whether the seller's statements were fraudulent. The wrong answers each miss this distinction. The choice saying the claim is not barred because the fraud issue was not actually litigated confuses claim preclusion with issue preclusion—lack of actual litigation affects whether a fact is established, not whether a claim is barred. The choice saying the judgment both bars the claim and establishes fraud wrongly assumes consent amounts to a factual finding. And the choice saying the judgment bars the claim only if the court made findings of fact is incorrect: a consent judgment is a final judgment on the merits even without findings, and those findings would not be required for claim preclusion. On the bar exam, separate "bars the claim" from "establishes the fact." A consent judgment always does the former, never the latter.