NBCOT Registered Occupational Therapists (OTR) Quiz: Assessment Selection
20 questions · exam conditions
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Assessment SelectionQuestion 1 of 20

An OTR is evaluating a client who is 6 months post-TBI and is now in a community-based rehabilitation program. The client has successfully resumed basic ADLs but struggles with IADLs, particularly managing their finances and scheduling medical appointments. The client demonstrates good verbal skills and insight into their goals but has difficulty with problem-solving when unexpected events occur. The OTR needs to select an assessment that can objectively measure complex problem-solving and executive function in a performance-based, functional context to guide higher-level cognitive intervention.

Which assessment is the most appropriate to identify the client's specific areas of difficulty?

The Kettle Test.
The Allen Cognitive Level Screen (ACLS-5).
The Loewenstein Occupational Therapy Cognitive Assessment (LOTCA).
The Weekly Calendar Planning Activity (WCPA).
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NBCOT Registered Occupational Therapists (OTR) Quiz

NBCOT Registered Occupational Therapists (OTR) Quiz: Assessment Selection

Practice Assessment Selection in NBCOT Registered Occupational Therapists (OTR) with focused quiz questions that help you check what you know, review explanations, and build confidence with test-style prompts.

What this quiz covers

This quiz focuses on Assessment Selection, giving you a quick way to practice the rules, question types, and explanations that matter most for NBCOT Registered Occupational Therapists (OTR).

How to use this quiz

Try each quiz question before looking at the correct answer. Use the explanations to review missed ideas, then come back to similar questions until the pattern feels familiar.

All questions

Question 1

An OTR is evaluating a client who is 6 months post-TBI and is now in a community-based rehabilitation program. The client has successfully resumed basic ADLs but struggles with IADLs, particularly managing their finances and scheduling medical appointments. The client demonstrates good verbal skills and insight into their goals but has difficulty with problem-solving when unexpected events occur. The OTR needs to select an assessment that can objectively measure complex problem-solving and executive function in a performance-based, functional context to guide higher-level cognitive intervention.

Which assessment is the most appropriate to identify the client's specific areas of difficulty?

  1. The Kettle Test.
  2. The Allen Cognitive Level Screen (ACLS-5).
  3. The Loewenstein Occupational Therapy Cognitive Assessment (LOTCA).
  4. The Weekly Calendar Planning Activity (WCPA). (correct answer)
Explanation: The correct answer is D. The Weekly Calendar Planning Activity (WCPA) is a performance-based assessment specifically designed to evaluate higher-level executive functions such as planning, organization, cognitive flexibility, and self-monitoring by asking the client to enter a series of appointments with specific constraints into a weekly schedule. This directly assesses the skills needed for the IADLs the client is struggling with (managing finances, scheduling) and is sensitive to the type of deficits seen after TBI. A is incorrect because the Kettle Test is a brief performance-based screen of cognitive skills used while the client makes two hot beverages. While it assesses executive function, the WCPA is a more complex task that provides a more in-depth evaluation of the specific planning and organizational skills needed for finances and scheduling. B is incorrect because the ACLS-5 is a screen that provides a general measure of global cognitive processing capacity. It is not sensitive enough to detect the specific, higher-level executive function deficits described in the scenario. C is incorrect because the LOTCA is a battery of subtests that assesses component cognitive skills (e.g., orientation, perception, visuomotor organization). It is a bottom-up assessment and does not evaluate how these components are integrated to perform complex, functional IADLs like the WCPA does.

Question 2

An OTR is working on a burn unit with a 30-year-old client who has full-thickness burns to their dominant hand and forearm. The client will require a static orthosis for positioning to prevent contractures. Before fabricating the orthosis, the OTR needs to assess the client's sensation, as this will influence design considerations and the client education plan for skin monitoring. The client has significant edema and is taking pain medication, which may affect their responses.

Given the acute stage of the injury and confounding factors, which assessment is most appropriate for establishing a baseline of cutaneous sensation?

  1. Two-point discrimination test using an aesthesiometer to measure innervation density in the fingertips.
  2. Semmes-Weinstein Monofilament Test to map thresholds of light touch and deep pressure sensation.
  3. Moberg Pickup Test to assess functional sensation through stereognosis.
  4. Gross sensory screen for pain (sharp/dull) and temperature awareness to confirm protective sensation. (correct answer)
Explanation: The correct answer is D. In the acute phase of a severe burn injury, the primary concern regarding sensation is the presence or absence of protective sensation (the ability to detect potentially harmful stimuli like sharp objects or extreme temperatures). A gross screen for pain and temperature is the most appropriate initial assessment. It is quick, clinically relevant for safety, and less likely to be confounded by edema and pain medication than more refined sensory tests. This information is critical for orthosis wear and safety education. A and B are incorrect because two-point discrimination and monofilament testing are quantitative tests that require a high degree of client attention and cooperation and can be unreliable in the presence of significant edema and pain. They are more appropriate for later stages of recovery to track nerve regeneration, not for an initial safety assessment in an acute burn. C is incorrect because the Moberg Pickup Test is a functional test that requires active motor control and manipulation of objects, which would be painful and likely impossible for a client with an acute, full-thickness hand burn.

Question 3

An OTR in an outpatient pediatric clinic is evaluating a 6-year-old child diagnosed with Developmental Coordination Disorder (DCD). The child's parents are concerned about poor handwriting, difficulty with fasteners on clothing, and clumsiness during playground activities. The OTR needs to select a single, comprehensive, norm-referenced assessment to establish a baseline of the child's motor skills, quantify the extent of the delay compared to peers, and guide goal setting for both fine and gross motor domains.

Which assessment best meets all of these evaluation needs?

  1. Peabody Developmental Motor Scales, Second Edition (PDMS-2).
  2. Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency, Second Edition (BOT-2). (correct answer)
  3. Miller Function and Participation Scales (M-FUN).
  4. Sensory Integration and Praxis Tests (SIPT).
Explanation: The correct answer is B. The BOT-2 is the most appropriate choice. Its age range (4-21 years) is suitable for the child, and it is considered a gold-standard, comprehensive assessment for DCD. It provides norm-referenced scores for fine motor precision, fine motor integration (including handwriting-related tasks), manual dexterity, as well as gross motor skills like balance and coordination, covering all of the parents' concerns in a single, standardized tool. A is incorrect because the age range for the PDMS-2 ends at 5 years, 11 months. A 6-year-old child is at the absolute ceiling of this assessment, which would limit the validity of the results and its ability to capture the full scope of their abilities and deficits compared to same-aged peers. C is incorrect because the M-FUN, while a good tool for this age range, primarily assesses functional motor skills in the context of play-based activities. The BOT-2 provides a more detailed and comprehensive analysis of specific motor proficiency components (e.g., strength, coordination, balance) that is often required for a precise diagnosis and intervention plan for DCD. D is incorrect because the SIPT is a specialized assessment for sensory integration and praxis deficits. While children with DCD may have co-occurring praxis issues, the SIPT does not provide a broad evaluation of fine and gross motor skills like handwriting and clumsiness, which are the primary concerns. It is not a first-line comprehensive motor assessment.

Question 4

An OTR in an outpatient hand clinic is treating a 50-year-old office worker with carpal tunnel syndrome. The client complains of numbness and tingling, which worsens with prolonged typing. The OTR has already gathered data on pain, grip strength, and range of motion. To justify the need for an ergonomic keyboard and to track changes in functional ability, the OTR needs to administer a performance-based test that simulates work-related fine motor tasks and is sensitive to changes in dexterity and speed.

Which standardized assessment is the most appropriate for this purpose?

  1. Jebsen-Taylor Hand Function Test.
  2. Purdue Pegboard Test. (correct answer)
  3. Disabilities of the Arm, Shoulder and Hand (DASH) Outcome Measure.
  4. Nine-Hole Peg Test.
Explanation: The correct answer is B. The Purdue Pegboard Test is the most appropriate choice because it is a timed test that assesses fine motor dexterity required for assembly and other work-related tasks (gross movements of fingers, hands, and arms, and fine fingertip dexterity). Its focus on speed and precision in manipulating small objects closely relates to the demands of typing and other office tasks. It is sensitive to change and can be used to track outcomes of ergonomic interventions. A is incorrect because the Jebsen-Taylor Hand Function Test assesses a broader range of hand functions through seven subtests (e.g., writing, turning cards, lifting large objects). While useful, it is less specific to the rapid, repetitive fine motor dexterity demands of typing than the Purdue Pegboard. C is incorrect because the DASH is a self-report questionnaire, not a performance-based test. While valuable for understanding the client's subjective experience of disability, it does not provide objective data on speed and dexterity needed to justify specific ergonomic equipment. D is incorrect because the Nine-Hole Peg Test is a brief measure of finger dexterity. The Purdue Pegboard provides a more complex assessment that involves both hands and simulates assembly tasks, making it a slightly better fit for assessing work-related fine motor skills in this context.

Question 5

An OTR is planning a driving evaluation for a 78-year-old client who has been referred by their physician due to concerns about cognitive decline following a recent hospitalization for pneumonia. The family reports the client has gotten lost on familiar routes. The OTR needs to administer a clinical assessment that has high predictive validity for identifying at-risk drivers and is sensitive to the cognitive skills required for driving, such as visual scanning, divided attention, and cognitive flexibility.

Which of the following assessments is most appropriate for this purpose as part of the pre-driving clinical evaluation?

  1. Trail Making Test Parts A and B. (correct answer)
  2. Motor-Free Visual Perception Test, 4th Edition (MVPT-4).
  3. Useful Field of View (UFOV) test.
  4. Rapid Pace Walk test.
Explanation: The correct answer is A. The Trail Making Test (TMT) Parts A and B is a neuropsychological test that assesses visual search, scanning, processing speed (Part A), and executive functioning, specifically task switching and cognitive flexibility (Part B). These skills are highly correlated with driving ability. The time taken to complete TMT-B, in particular, has been shown in numerous studies to be a strong predictor of on-road driving performance and crash risk, making it a critical tool in a clinical driving evaluation. B is incorrect because the MVPT-4 assesses various aspects of visual perception but does not include a measure of processing speed, attention, or cognitive flexibility, which are critical for the complex task of driving. A person can have intact visual perception but still be an unsafe driver due to executive function deficits. C is incorrect because the UFOV test is a computerized assessment of visual processing speed and attention. While it is an excellent predictor of driving safety, the TMT is more commonly available in clinical settings, easier to administer, and assesses a broader range of executive functions relevant to driving. TMT is a foundational tool in this type of screen. D is incorrect because the Rapid Pace Walk test is a measure of motor performance and physical fitness. While physical ability is important for driving, the primary concern in this scenario is cognitive decline, which the TMT directly addresses.

Question 6

An OTR working in industrial rehabilitation is conducting a functional capacity evaluation (FCE) for a 38-year-old warehouse worker who is 3 months post-lumbar fusion. The client is cleared to return to work, but the employer requires an objective assessment of their ability to perform the physical demands of their job, which includes lifting, carrying, and prolonged standing. The OTR needs to select a standardized FCE system known for its emphasis on safety, reliability, and systematic measurement of maximal performance.

Which approach to functional capacity evaluation would be most suitable in this context?

  1. The Canadian Occupational Performance Measure (COPM) to identify the client's self-perceived ability to perform work tasks.
  2. A series of non-standardized work simulation tasks created by the therapist based on the job description.
  3. The EPIC Lift Capacity Test, as part of a comprehensive FCE system that uses standardized equipment and protocols. (correct answer)
  4. A physical performance test battery like the Senior Fitness Test, adapted for a younger, working-age adult.
Explanation: The correct answer is C. The EPIC Lift Capacity Test is a well-known, standardized FCE component that specifically and safely assesses lifting capacity. It is part of a larger system of standardized assessments used in FCEs to provide objective data on physical work performance. Choosing a standardized, evidence-based system is critical for legal and insurance purposes in return-to-work contexts. A is incorrect because the COPM is a client-centered interview tool to establish goals. It measures self-perception, not actual physical capacity, and would not provide the objective data required by the employer. B is incorrect because while work simulation is part of an FCE, using a non-standardized approach lacks the reliability, validity, and legal defensibility of a recognized FCE system. For high-stakes return-to-work decisions, standardized protocols are the standard of care. D is incorrect because the Senior Fitness Test is designed to assess functional fitness in older adults. Its norms and test items are entirely inappropriate for evaluating the physical capacity of a warehouse worker to perform their job duties.

Question 7

An OTR in a pediatric outpatient setting is working with an 8-year-old child with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) and anxiety. The child has extreme sensitivities to auditory and tactile stimuli, leading to frequent meltdowns in the classroom and at home. To tailor interventions, the OTR needs to move beyond a general sensory profile and quantify the specific physiological responses the child has to sensory stimuli. The goal is to identify which stimuli are genuinely over-arousing versus what might be a behavioral response.

Which assessment approach would provide the most objective data to meet this clinical need?

  1. Administering the Sensory Profile 2 to the parents and teacher to identify the child's patterns of sensory processing.
  2. Conducting an in-depth interview with the parents about triggers for meltdowns and calming strategies that have been effective.
  3. Using a structured observational tool like the Sensory Processing Measure (SPM) in the clinic's therapy gym.
  4. Measuring electrodermal activity (EDA) or heart rate variability (HRV) during controlled exposure to various sensory stimuli. (correct answer)
Explanation: This is a difficult, edge-case question. The correct answer is D. To objectively quantify physiological responses to sensory stimuli and differentiate them from purely behavioral responses, the use of physiological measures like electrodermal activity (skin conductance) or heart rate variability is the most advanced and precise method. This approach, often used in research and specialized clinics, directly measures the autonomic nervous system's response to sensory input, providing objective data on arousal and stress that is independent of behavioral interpretation. This directly answers the clinical question about identifying genuine over-arousal. A and C are incorrect because the Sensory Profile 2 and the SPM are standardized questionnaires or checklists based on observation of behavior. While they are excellent tools for identifying sensory processing patterns, they rely on the interpretation of behavior (e.g., is the child avoiding touch because it's noxious or for another reason?). They do not provide the direct physiological measurement needed to answer the specific, nuanced clinical question. B is incorrect because while a parent interview is essential for gathering history and context, it provides subjective data. The goal here is to obtain objective data to supplement the subjective and behavioral information.

Question 8

An occupational therapist is evaluating a 6-year-old child in a school setting due to concerns about handwriting legibility. The teacher reports that the child struggles with forming letters, spacing, and staying on the line. The OTR wants to determine if deficits in visual-motor integration are contributing to these difficulties.

Which standardized assessment would be MOST appropriate for the OTR to administer to evaluate this child's visual-motor integration skills?

  1. Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency, Second Edition (BOT-2)
  2. Beery-Buktenica Developmental Test of Visual-Motor Integration (Beery VMI) (correct answer)
  3. Sensory Profile 2
  4. School Function Assessment (SFA)
Explanation: The Beery VMI is the most appropriate choice as it specifically assesses the ability to integrate visual and motor skills by having the child copy a sequence of geometric forms. This directly relates to the concerns about letter formation. A: The BOT-2 is a comprehensive measure of motor proficiency but is less specific to visual-motor integration than the Beery VMI. C: The Sensory Profile 2 is a questionnaire that gathers information about sensory processing patterns, not visual-motor skills. D: The SFA evaluates a student's participation in non-academic school tasks and is too broad for this specific referral concern.

Question 9

An OTR in an acute care hospital is working with a 72-year-old client who sustained a right-sided cerebrovascular accident (CVA). During initial observation, the OTR notices that the client ignores food on the left side of their plate and fails to attend to staff when they approach from the left. The OTR suspects unilateral neglect.

Which assessment is the BEST choice to quickly screen for the presence of unilateral neglect?

  1. Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA)
  2. Functional Independence Measure (FIM)
  3. Clock Drawing Test (correct answer)
  4. Berg Balance Scale
Explanation: The Clock Drawing Test is a widely used and effective screening tool for identifying unilateral neglect and other visual-spatial deficits. The client's ability to place numbers and hands on the clock face can reveal neglect of one side. A: The MoCA is a general cognitive screen and, while it includes a clock drawing component, its primary purpose is not specifically to assess neglect. B: The FIM measures functional independence in self-care and mobility but does not directly assess unilateral neglect. D: The Berg Balance Scale assesses static and dynamic balance, not visual-perceptual deficits.

Question 10

An OTR is working with an inpatient in an acute psychiatric unit diagnosed with major depressive disorder. The client expresses a lack of interest and purpose, and staff reports the client rarely initiates participation in unit activities or self-care routines. The OTR wants to understand the client's values, interests, and sense of personal causation.

Which assessment tool is specifically designed to evaluate volition within the Model of Human Occupation (MOHO)?

  1. Allen Cognitive Level Screen (ACLS-5)
  2. Beck Depression Inventory (BDI-II)
  3. Volitional Questionnaire (VQ) (correct answer)
  4. Kohlman Evaluation of Living Skills (KELS)
Explanation: The Volitional Questionnaire (VQ) is an observational assessment based on MOHO that evaluates a person's volition, including their values, interests, and personal causation, as they engage in occupations. It is the best choice for understanding the client's motivation and drive. A: The ACLS-5 assesses functional cognitive ability, not volition. B: The BDI-II is a self-report measure of depressive symptoms, but it does not provide insight into the underlying volitional constructs. D: The KELS assesses knowledge and performance of basic living skills, not the client's internal motivation.

Question 11

A 24-month-old child is referred to an early intervention program due to delayed language development and limited engagement with toys. The OTR wants to assess the child's developmental play skills and determine their current play level.

Which play-based, developmental assessment would be the most suitable choice?

  1. Peabody Developmental Motor Scales, Second Edition (PDMS-2)
  2. Bayley Scales of Infant and Toddler Development
  3. Revised Knox Preschool Play Scale (correct answer)
  4. Sensory Integration and Praxis Tests (SIPT)
Explanation: The Revised Knox Preschool Play Scale is an observational assessment that evaluates developmental skills as seen during play. It describes play in terms of 6-month increments up to age 3 and is ideal for understanding a child's natural play behaviors and developmental level in four dimensions: space management, material management, pretense-symbolic, and participation. A: The PDMS-2 assesses gross and fine motor skills, not play. B: The Bayley is a comprehensive developmental assessment but is less focused specifically on the qualitative aspects of play. D: The SIPT is for children aged 4 to 8 years and assesses underlying sensory integration and praxis, which is too advanced and not appropriate for a 2-year-old.

Question 12

An OTR in an inpatient rehabilitation facility is evaluating a 30-year-old client with a complete C6 spinal cord injury. The primary goal of the evaluation is to establish a baseline of the client's functional independence in self-care and mobility to guide intervention planning and track progress.

Which standardized assessment is the most sensitive and specific for measuring functional changes in the spinal cord injury population?

  1. Functional Independence Measure (FIM)
  2. Spinal Cord Independence Measure (SCIM) (correct answer)
  3. Barthel Index
  4. Canadian Occupational Performance Measure (COPM)
Explanation: The Spinal Cord Independence Measure (SCIM) is the most appropriate tool. It was specifically designed to be more sensitive than other functional measures for individuals with spinal cord injuries, addressing areas like respiration, bladder/bowel management, and bed mobility in greater detail relevant to this population. A: The FIM is a widely used functional assessment but can have ceiling and floor effects and is less sensitive to the specific functional challenges faced by individuals with SCI compared to the SCIM. C: The Barthel Index is a less detailed measure of ADL independence. D: The COPM is an outcome measure for client-identified goals, not a standardized assessment of functional independence.

Question 13

A school-based OTR is working with a 7-year-old student who has difficulty staying seated, often bumps into peers, and avoids messy play activities like finger painting. The teacher has requested an OT evaluation to explore potential sensory processing difficulties.

Which standardized tool should the OTR use to gather comprehensive information about the student's sensory processing patterns from the teacher and parents?

  1. Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency, Second Edition (BOT-2)
  2. Developmental Test of Visual Perception (DTVP-3)
  3. Sensory Profile 2 (correct answer)
  4. Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scales, Third Edition
Explanation: The Sensory Profile 2 is the most appropriate assessment. It is a set of standardized questionnaires completed by caregivers and teachers to evaluate a child's sensory processing patterns in everyday life. Its results can identify patterns of sensory seeking, avoiding, sensitivity, and registration, which directly addresses the referral concerns. A: The BOT-2 assesses motor skills. B: The DTVP-3 assesses visual perception. D: The Vineland assesses adaptive behaviors but is less specific to sensory processing than the Sensory Profile.

Question 14

An OTR is preparing to discharge an adult client from an acute psychiatric hospital to a supervised group home. The OTR needs to assess the client's ability to perform essential living skills to ensure a safe transition to the community.

Which assessment is designed to evaluate a person's knowledge and performance of 17 basic living skills in areas such as self-care, safety and health, money management, and community mobility?

  1. Assessment of Motor and Process Skills (AMPS)
  2. Role Checklist
  3. Kohlman Evaluation of Living Skills (KELS) (correct answer)
  4. Activity Card Sort (ACS)
Explanation: The Kohlman Evaluation of Living Skills (KELS) is the correct choice. It is specifically designed to determine a person's ability to function in basic living skills by assessing both knowledge and performance, making it an excellent tool for determining the appropriate level of support needed for community living. A: The AMPS evaluates the quality of performance in ADLs but requires special training and is less focused on the breadth of community living skills covered by the KELS. B: The Role Checklist gathers data on past, present, and future roles. D: The Activity Card Sort identifies changes in activity participation.

Question 15

A client is 10 weeks post-rotator cuff repair and is attending outpatient OT. The client reports persistent difficulty with tasks like washing their hair, reaching into a high cabinet, and putting on a coat. The OTR wants to measure the client's perceived difficulty with upper extremity tasks.

Which self-report outcome measure is most appropriate to administer?

  1. Fugl-Meyer Assessment of Motor Recovery
  2. Manual Muscle Testing (MMT)
  3. Disabilities of the Arm, Shoulder and Hand (DASH) (correct answer)
  4. Goniometric range of motion measurement
Explanation: The Disabilities of the Arm, Shoulder and Hand (DASH) is the most suitable tool. It is a 30-item, self-report questionnaire that assesses physical function and symptoms in people with any musculoskeletal disorder of the upper limb. It directly captures the client's perspective on their functional limitations. A: The Fugl-Meyer is for post-stroke motor recovery. B and D (MMT and goniometry) are objective physical measurements taken by the therapist, not self-report measures of function.

Question 16

An 82-year-old client with age-related macular degeneration is referred for a low vision evaluation. The client reports that their primary difficulty is reading newspapers and personal mail. The OTR wants to objectively measure the client's reading acuity and speed.

Which assessment is the standard for evaluating reading performance in a person with low vision?

  1. Motor-Free Visual Perception Test, Fourth Edition (MVPT-4)
  2. Snellen Eye Chart
  3. Minnesota Reading Acuity Chart (MNREAD) (correct answer)
  4. Confrontation visual field testing
Explanation: The Minnesota Reading Acuity Chart (MNREAD) is the most appropriate assessment. It specifically measures reading acuity, critical print size, and maximum reading speed by having the client read continuous text sentences. This provides direct, functional data about the client's primary complaint. B: The Snellen chart measures distance visual acuity (e.g., 20/20), not reading acuity. A: The MVPT-4 assesses visual perception without a motor component but does not assess reading. D: Confrontation testing screens for peripheral visual field loss, which is not the primary deficit in macular degeneration.

Question 17

An OTR in an industrial rehabilitation setting is performing an ergonomic assessment for an assembly line worker who reports upper back and neck pain. The OTR needs to analyze the worker's posture and identify risk factors associated with their workstation tasks.

Which observational assessment tool is designed to systematically evaluate postural risks for the upper body?

  1. NIOSH Lifting Equation
  2. Rapid Upper Limb Assessment (RULA) (correct answer)
  3. Purdue Pegboard Test
  4. Nine-Hole Peg Test
Explanation: The Rapid Upper Limb Assessment (RULA) is the most suitable tool for this situation. It is an ergonomic assessment method that uses a scoring system based on diagrams of body postures to evaluate the risks of musculoskeletal disorders, particularly for the neck, trunk, and upper limbs. A: The NIOSH Lifting Equation is used to assess risks associated with two-handed lifting tasks, not postural stress in assembly work. C and D (Purdue and Nine-Hole Peg) are tests of manual dexterity, not ergonomic risk.

Question 18

A 4-year-old child with developmental coordination disorder (DCD) is referred to occupational therapy. The parents are concerned about the child's clumsiness, difficulty with dressing, and inability to keep up with peers on the playground. The OTR needs a comprehensive, norm-referenced assessment of the child's fine and gross motor skills.

Which assessment is the most appropriate choice to obtain a detailed profile of this child's motor proficiency?

  1. Peabody Developmental Motor Scales, Second Edition (PDMS-2)
  2. Miller Function and Participation Scales (M-FUN)
  3. Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency, Second Edition (BOT-2) (correct answer)
  4. Beery-Buktenica Developmental Test of Visual-Motor Integration (Beery VMI)
Explanation: The Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency (BOT-2) is the best choice for a 4-year-old with suspected DCD. It is a comprehensive, norm-referenced measure of motor skills for individuals aged 4 through 21, covering areas of fine motor control, manual coordination, body coordination, and strength and agility, which directly align with the referral concerns. A: The PDMS-2 is for children from birth to 5 years, so while the age range fits, the BOT-2 is generally preferred for diagnosing DCD in this age group. B: The M-FUN is also appropriate, but the BOT-2 is often considered the gold standard for DCD evaluation. D: The Beery VMI assesses only visual-motor integration, which is too narrow.

Question 19

An OTR in an early intervention program is working with a 24-month-old child born prematurely who is showing delays in play skills, fine motor development, and social interaction. The OTR needs to select a standardized, play-based assessment to evaluate the child's overall developmental level, understand their play behaviors, and help the family create developmentally appropriate play-based learning opportunities at home.

Which assessment tool would be the most effective and family-centered choice?

  1. Bayley Scales of Infant and Toddler Development, Fourth Edition (Bayley-4).
  2. Transdisciplinary Play-Based Assessment, Second Edition (TPBA-2). (correct answer)
  3. Developmental Assessment of Young Children, Second Edition (DAYC-2).
  4. Revised Knox Preschool Play Scale (RKPPS).
Explanation: The correct answer is B. The Transdisciplinary Play-Based Assessment (TPBA-2) is the most appropriate choice because it uses a naturalistic, play-based format to assess a child's development across four domains (sensorimotor, emotional and social, communication, and cognitive). It is designed to be a team-based assessment involving the parents, which aligns with the family-centered approach needed. It provides a holistic view of the child's functioning within the context of play. A is incorrect because the Bayley-4 is a highly structured, standardized assessment administered directly to the child by the examiner. While it provides excellent normative data, it is not play-based and is less naturalistic and family-centered than the TPBA-2. C is incorrect because the DAYC-2 is also a standardized assessment, but it relies on a combination of observation, direct assessment, and parent interview across five domains. It is more structured than the TPBA-2 and does not center the evaluation process around a natural play session. D is incorrect because the Revised Knox Preschool Play Scale is an observational assessment of play skills, but it is not a comprehensive developmental assessment. It would evaluate the child's play behaviors but would not provide a broader picture of their cognitive, social-emotional, and motor development in the way the TPBA-2 does.

Question 20

An OTR is conducting an evaluation for a client in an outpatient work hardening program who is recovering from a lumbar spine injury. The client's job involves frequent lifting, carrying, and bending. The goal is to determine the client's readiness to return to full-duty work by objectively measuring their physical capacity for specific job demands.

Which type of assessment is MOST comprehensive for determining the client's ability to safely perform their job tasks?

  1. Functional Capacity Evaluation (FCE) (correct answer)
  2. Worker Role Interview (WRI)
  3. Purdue Pegboard Test
  4. Manual Muscle Testing (MMT)
Explanation: A Functional Capacity Evaluation (FCE) is the most appropriate choice. An FCE is a comprehensive battery of standardized tests designed to assess an individual's physical abilities to perform work-related tasks, such as lifting, carrying, and bending, providing objective data for return-to-work decisions. B: The WRI is a semi-structured interview that assesses psychosocial and environmental factors related to work but does not measure physical capacity. C: The Purdue Pegboard Test measures fine motor dexterity, which is not relevant to the client's job demands. D: MMT assesses isolated muscle strength, which is only one component of a comprehensive FCE.